So's physics. Even before quantum physics, we developed statistical mechanics to deal with epistemically indeterministic systems even thought the common belief was that all systems, no matter how complex, were at least in theory predictable/ontologically deterministic. That was before "chaos theory", before "catastrophe theory", and before the quantum realm started acting out at the macroscopic level.Could be a thousand reasons. History is, alas, not physics. It's chaotic, unpredictable.
A person or event or idea might be ignored 99 times, while on the 100th time, it may rampage though the human heart and imagination.
This is true. History is, like everything, a matter of probability. What is the probability that a common story told in various forms (epic, drama, history, biography, and hard to classify in-betweens) about a historical individual who was claimed to be divine and/or the son of god and to whom miracles were attributed was ignored for the most part both before and after Mark when this was such a sensational story? Further, what are the chances that if Mark did indeed "catch fire", it was 300 years later after this new type of historical Jesus Christians suddenly were finally at least allowed to practice their religion (in theory) without being executed or persecuted? Having posited that both of these incredibly unlikely turns of events occurred, how likely is it that a story which required a Jewish understanding was first persecuted by the Jews, and then both the Jews and the Christians were viciously and ruthlessly persecuted by everybody else when Mark's story was so "exciting"? In fact, how can it be so exciting to people for whom it would be nonsense? If someone came and told you that "she of the bear had finally come!" and you had no clue whom the person was talking about, but you did know that they belonged to a marginalized "primitive" and fundamentalist lot, why would you suddenly be overwhelmed by this individual who means something to a culture you don't belong to and thus would have to be explained to you in order for it to be meaningful at all?
Most importantly, why on earth do we find the letters of Paul which, if Jesus didn't exist and Paul didn't know his brother or his disciples, indicate that we have a Jewish cult that talks about a messiah who doesn't do anything a messiah was supposed to, who is a divine figure when that was blasphemy (and Paul says that's why he persecuted the very group he joined), and that is so marginally connected to any Jewish expectations that Mark, among others, is filled with half-baked reasons why particular lines in the Jewish scriptures indicated what nobody though they did? Then, once we admit that there is the non-Jewish group worshipping someone other than YHWH yet situates itself with a Jewish matrix, where would an author who wrote that this non-Jewish non-pagan divine character was historical find an audience? The people who were worshipping this individual were already outcasts from every group and were never reaccepted in to the Jewish matrix the entire story is situated in (and only after 3 centuries were they legally allowed by pagans to practice their religion), so all Mark would have done would be to say that a idolatrous figure to the Jews was really a historical messiah, but who still didn't do what a messiah was supposed to, and thus no this godman is historical like so many others but
1) he makes no sense for the pseudo-Jewish Christ cult who worshipped him earlier
2) he isn't accepted by the Jews or pagans once Mark claims he's historical
3) he doesn't make sense as a pre-Markan Messiah in the first place nor does the movement we find reported in Paul (which, again, is neither Jewish nor pagan but the inception of a Christianity before Mark which, if Jesus was already a divine figure, would mean that Mark ruined everything because nobody was going to follow an Attis or Mithras who was historical)
How do you situate this story within the socio-political and cultural setting of the first century?
But I would say that the major difference between Alex/Caesar and Jesus is that Alex/Caesar were probably historical figures, certainly powerful political figures, while Jesus was a lowly Galilean preacher.
Plato was claimed to be a god and was not of any noble lineage. Socrates was attributed miracles and he was broke and executed. Also, the messiah was not supposed to be a "lowly Galilean preacher" but the restorer king/priest of Israel. There were other revolutionaries who had some following but they were executed or killed and their followers gradually forgotten. You're claiming that this Christ-Figure (who doesn't fit the Christ role) was already worshipped in a way that was unheard of blasphemy for the Jews, common for the pagans, but wouldn't make sense for the latter and was unacceptable for the former. Now someone says he's not only not a Christ Godman but a historical lowly peasant who was executed instead of restoring Israel, and what about that is going to attract people? The Jews were hoping to be saved, the Qumran sect left their caves to fight in yet one more struggle to restore Israel, and they were crushed, defeated, their temple destroyed, and you claim that a Christ-figure who existed as such before this would now, after no messiah appeared to restore Israel, would suddenly be more popular as a failure?
To you, perhaps. Try being fundamentally defined by your connection to a homeland and the Lord God who brought your people to that land and suffers no rivals, whom you are connected to by a sacred history recorded and studied in household synagogues and whom you worship in his temple where he dwells, waiting for the anointed of God to come and liberate Israel, only to have all this be destroyed: temple, land, people, families, etc. Then someone comes up and says "hey, you know that weird group of people who worshipped a divine Christ? Turns out he lived and didn't save us! Instead or restoring our land, he allowed himself to be killed so that the Romans could utterly wipe out our sacred land! Wanna sign up?"That's a lot sexier
Not very sexy.
Also, I don't believe that Alex/Caesar were ever associated with the Jewish messiah.
According to you, a divine messiah was already being worshipped and not believed to exist, and as that is not Jewish nor messianic, who knows? Maybe Paul worshipped Alexander the Great and just called him Jesus.
You were asked "Where did the idea of sacrifice for other's sins come from?" and you used the Aztecs as an analogy. They sure sacrificed people, but as you say it had nothing to do with godmen or sin or anything related, so why bring it up?Huh? Why do you think that Aztec sacrifices had anything to do with godmen? Or with sin, for that matter? Have you read about them?
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