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I'm ignoring the vowels, first line onlyOkay, so let's see what you mean. Please transliterate=(the process of transferring a word from the alphabet of one language to another) into English letters the following, based on your claim of pronunciation, so I can understand how you are saying the text should be correctly pronounced. Also, please mark ever place where a pause or stop is added.
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CGreetings. No, I don't have it out for Terah. Let’s look at what various commentaries say about him.
Rashi states the Midrash and Aggada that Terah took Avram to Nimrud due to Avram’s actions against Terah’s avodah zara. Of course we all know the story of what Nimrud is stated to have judged against Avram. Thus, the Midrash and Aggada doesn’t paint Terah during that time in a favourable light.
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Further to this, Rashi later addresses the concept of what Terah’s death is mentioned before Avram leaving Haran. I.e. Avram’s time in Haran would have placed him leaving before Terah’s death.
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Ramban brings up both the Rashi above and other perspectives that state that during Terah’s life time he was not in the right situation with Hashem. The claim is made that because of the affect of his son Avraham, Terah made teshuva.
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Those are just two sources for what Terah’s situation was. The Rashi above also addresses the issue of Avraham leaving Haran, before Terah’s death and its justification on the past events involving Terah’s death.
Greetings. No, I don't have it out for Terah. Let’s look at what various commentaries say about him.
Rashi states the Midrash and Aggada that Terah took Avram to Nimrud due to Avram’s actions against Terah’s avodah zara. Of course we all know the story of what Nimrud is stated to have judged against Avram. Thus, the Midrash and Aggada doesn’t paint Terah during that time in a favourable light.
View attachment 94315
Further to this, Rashi later addresses the concept of what Terah’s death is mentioned before Avram leaving Haran. I.e. Avram’s time in Haran would have placed him leaving before Terah’s death.
View attachment 94316
View attachment 94317
Ramban brings up both the Rashi above and other perspectives that state that during Terah’s life time he was not in the right situation with Hashem. The claim is made that because of the affect of his son Avraham, Terah made teshuva.
View attachment 94318View attachment 94319
Those are just two sources for what Terah’s situation was. The Rashi above also addresses the issue of Avraham leaving Haran, before Terah’s death and its justification on the past events involving Terah’s death.
No. It is not a problem. As far as I am concerned you had a question, and you got it answered. And then you got a lot of answers to things you didn't ask.This thread was silly for me to make. My apologies
Okay. Thank you for provding this. So, now lets look at this in detail.I'm ignoring the vowels, first line only
ויאמר יהוה אל
transliteration: WYAMR YHWH AL or WYAMRh YHWH AL (R could be soft Rh or hard R)
Because In transliteration doubling an R is really relevant.Is there a reason you write Haran instead of Harran?
Okay, with this one.א,ח,ה,ע - pronounced with throat
ג,י,כ,ק - pronounced with palate
ד,ט,ל,נ,ת - pronounced with tongue
ז,ס,ש,ר,צ - pronounced with teeth
ב,ו,מ,פ - pronounced with lips
My source says nothing about stops so I'm following your text for that.
Also, in your tranliteration how do you dinstinquish between (אל) and (על)?I'm ignoring the vowels, first line only
ויאמר יהוה אל
transliteration: WYAMR YHWH AL or WYAMRh YHWH AL (R could be soft Rh or hard R)
Do you consider this to be the case with the Samaritan Torah also? They don't have Masoritic texts. They have thier own system and thie pronounciation is different from Jewish Hebrew.I understood it fine. Vowels have been used to corrupt the text in Genesis 16:12:
Because In transliteration doubling an R is really relevant.
Is that name any different to Haran Abraham's brother?
1. The meaning of the word is solely from the letters, so the what would be called English vowels don't convey useful information. WY would be pronounced as a single syllable 'way'. Adding alelph as conventional smooth breathing would then beOkay. Thank you for provding this. So, now lets look at this in detail.
- When you write "WYAMR" how do you pronounce the WY part of the word and the MR? Meaning, how does one say that in verbal speach?
- The use of an "A" is undertood to be a representation of a vowel in English. Your use of it can be misleading in the word "WYAMR" because it would lead someone to think that they can prononce the YAM part like the word yam in English.
- Also, you use of "A" to express (א) also brings up the problem of associating the "ah" or "aw" sound in English with (א). Most transliterate (א) into English by the mark (`) to denote that it is not a vowel and that as a consanent there is no equivalent in English.
Yes, see below.Is the name any different to Haran Abraham's brother?
So, what you just described a vowel convention. Thus, you do have a system of vowels that you incorporate whether you have actually created symbols for them or not. Thus, the only way one would know how to pronounce the text is for someone to have taught them how to do it. Your disagreement with the Masorites is then your personal interpretation of how you think ancient Hebrew as pronounced because if I understand you correctly no one taught you how to pronounce it. Including the Sefer Yetzirah because the Sefer Yitzrah you does not describe how to pronounce the sounds needed to make a word work in Herbew. It further describes consanents in a way that only someone who already knows Hebrew would be able to understand.1. The meaning of the word is solely from the letters, so the what would be called English vowels don't convey useful information. WY would be pronounced as a single syllable 'way'. Adding alelph as conventional smooth breathing would then be
wayee, adding mem would be wayee-em, and then adding resh would be wayee-emar. (four syllables from five letters).
So summerizing what you wrote.1. The meaning of the word is solely from the letters, so the what would be called English vowels don't convey useful information. WY would be pronounced as a single syllable 'way'. Adding alelph as conventional smooth breathing would then be
wayee, adding mem would be wayee-em, and then adding resh would be wayee-emar. (four syllables from five letters).
So, what is the correct meaning of the word adultery, by the Torah?...Further, the Torah never claims that "anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.” That statement, and that claim is an invention of the authors of the Jesus story.
Thank you, that is exactly what I wanted to hear....Just telling you that we Torah based Jews are basing our concepts on the Hebrew Torah, in Hebrew.
So, do I understand correctly, one doesn't need to respect his parents, if they can be considered non-Jews?....The Jewish man in that story, being the sone of Jewish parents, is required to respect and them and take care of their need. Because the Torah at Mount Sinai was given after Avram ben-Terahh once can't apply the direct command that Hashem to Avram, specifically to do.
I don't think there is anything that says it is not acceptable. But, perhaps in some cases it is enough if the "dead" do the burial. In some cases it may be that it is not necessary for some person to do it, if there are others to do it. I think different case would be, if there would be no one else to do it.If it Christianity it is acceptable logic for a person to abandon his parents for what someone claims to be a mission and burying them is not acceptable in Christianity that is something outside of the Hebrew Torah that Jews received and something else.