Is there any validity to the charge of interpolation and fraud or not? That's all.
I'll try again. If you want to discuss other topics in this thread, by all means do so but please don't neglect the thread topic entirely especially when you stated specifically that the issues I brought up with Aramaic primacy in another thread should be brought here. So I did.
Once again, thought, look at John 20:16. I don't care which translation of whatever translations you think are from some Aramaic original. Now notice that when Mary addresses Jesus the "Aramaic" versions, like the Greek, have two words there. In English, the translation is usually something like "she turned to him and said "rabbouni', which means 'teacher'". In Greek, John first has the Aramaic and then, natural, a Greek translation as it is in Greek. However, the "Aramaic" versions of John have exactly the same thing, only instead of translating it with a Greek word they translate it with a synonym. Why would an author writing a text in Aramaic feel the need to point out what a word that is so common among Aramaic speakers it became the name for their spiritual leaders? It's like me saying "he's my friend, which means buddy". It makes no sense to translate a word into the same language, but it does if the "Aramaic' versions were translations from Greek. This was in the Greek text so they felt they needed to keep it.
I already went over how, when in Mark/Matthew Jesus' last words one the cross are given first in Aramaic they are then translated. In an Aramaic original, there'd be no need for that. Yet guess what? It's "translated' in the "Aramaic" versions.
Basically, when ever an Aramaic word is transliterated in the Greek NT and then a translation provided in Greek, the "Aramaic" versions do the same thing. Even when a word is not explicitly translated (i.e., there's no word like
legetai to indicate something like "which means"), such as when Jesus says "Abba, father" so that the word abba can be understood as "father" to Greek readers who don't know what "abba" means but do know what
pater means. In the "Aramaic' versions they just repeated the word.
So let's ignore for now all manuscripts, all arguments that are too technical because they depend upon e.g., understanding the languages in question and there histories, and simply ask why the authors of the supposedly original "Aramaic" gospels would translate words from Aramaic into Aramaic?