Jesus
is omnipresent (in
Matthew 28:20, he says “and lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world”).
He said this
after his resurrection. He proved himself obedient to God, until he was killed. So after he was resurrected by God,
as a spirit creature (1 Peter 3:18), he could accomplish that, since he said that “all authority” had been “
given” him.
God doesn’t need authority to be
given him, does he? Jesus wasn’t claiming to be Almighty God.
Jesus
is omniscient (in
John 16:30, the author admits, “Now are we sure that thou knowest all things”).
Someone
else saying that? That really means nothing. So Jesus didn’t say it… that would be important.
What
did Jesus say? He said “concerning that day and hour, nobody knows,
neither the angels in heaven nor the son, but only the Father.” — Mark 13:32
Jesus
is omnipotent (
Matthew 28:18: “All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth,” Jesus says).
Oh my goodness…. Yes,
“given” him. God has had it from the gitgo.
And if Jesus just has one divine attribute, he could not be the Jewish Messiah.
Where do you get this from?
Love is a divine attribute…
Question: In Daniel 9, how would the Messiah be “cut-off with nothing for himself”, and being cut-off, how could he “finish off sin”, as the prophecy further states?