AmbiguousGuy
Well-Known Member
First off, why do you think that this sort of borrowing, which was common in the ancient world, supports your "arguments" (and I use the term loosely)?
It's one leg of my millipedic theory regarding the non-historicity of Jesus. I've explained already -- very clearly -- why it supports my theory, but I suppose I'll suck it up and do so one more time.
The only place I've seen precise tracking of language -- integrated within the text -- of a story, is with rewrites of fiction. I write fiction. I have boxes of old manuscripts which are filled with rewrites containing that kind of language-tracking. But I've seen it nowhere else -- not even in plagiarism really. A plagiarist will steal one particular stretch of text, but his entire text will not be infused with such thieveries from start to finish.
That happens with fiction rewrites, in my experiences. It could happen in non-fiction, of course, but that would be much more rare.
Is my position clear to you now?
Now, you say above that this kind of borrowing "was common". But if that is true, why will no one point me to the evidence of it, which I've been requesting repeatedly?
Why not just provide the evidence?
Second, You didn't imply borrowing in the beginning. You implied plagiarism. In case you hadn't noticed, words do have meaning, and when you say things you don't mean, it only adds to your confusion.
I'm afraid you're confused about language. Words mean what any two dialoguers agree that the words mean, not what some particular dictionary claims they mean.
You stepped into one of my dialogues insisting that I use the word as you prefer, rather than how my dialogue partner and I were using it.
A belief in holy word meaning will confuse the human mind. Trust me.
What, specifically, do you find plagiaristic about the synoptics?
The parts which you agreed were copied from one to the other.
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