doppelgänger;1055757 said:
I think malakoi (in some of its connotations) is closer to what modern English speakers mean by "homosexual" then the word usually relied on by religious conservatives: arsenokoitēs.
But in none of the major English translations is malakoi translated as "homosexual." KJV and NAS has "effeminate" while NIV and NLT have it translated as "male prostitutes." The ESV translates both malakos and arsenokoitēs together as "men who practice homosexuality," which is interesting, but I'm not aware of anywhere else in the Greek of the time where the two words are used together in the way the ESV translation suggests.
Obviously they are wrong. The modern ambiguity and confusion of the word is artificial. By the way, many translations preserve the homosexual nature of Romans 1 (and elsewhere) where
malakoi is used without
arsenokoi.
The translation "male prostitutes" does not come from the word
arsenokoi or
malakoi, but from the absolutely incorrect notion that Paul or any of his contemporaries could have known about life-long, committed homosexual relationships. It appears in Plato's famous
Symposium, which was part of a basic Hellenistic education, and its ideas resurface not only in every philosophical school (either accepted or challenged) but Plutarch (a first century writer) patterns his dialogue on love (an extensive debate and speech on many forms of love, including homosexuality) after it. The "male prostitute" translation is an artificial attempt to force Paul to say something that he does not according to incorrect assumptions about his own education.
The reason why arsenokoiti does not appear anywhere else is because (I believe) it only appears in Paul. It's a hapex legomena.