Nada
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The point is that the word demonstrates nothing. Paul did not use the known Greek words used to describe men who have sex with men, much less anal intercourse. Conservatives try to get around this by arguing that he coined the word from the Septuagint, but there are a host of problems with that theory (including that no one would know what he was talking about). Either way, it is not properly translated sodomy.
Well if a man lies with another man, and it says this is an abomination,would that not imply it means sex?