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Why did God create evil?

waitasec

Veteran Member
Your point being that knowledge relies on understanding? Or which point?
**sigh**
where and when did i say that? i've always contended understanding and judgement rely on knowledge...

you don't know what glipper means, so why make up a definition?
do you normally have conversations in a language you don't know to communicate? of course not.

And as the foundation, knowledge doesn't need understanding or judgment to be knowledge, while understanding and judgment need knowledge (at some level) to even pretend to work.
i asked you to explain how can you define what you don't know?
you said:
By making up understanding.

where did i say knowledge needs understanding?
what do you think i meant when i said, knowledge is the foundation of judgement and understanding?




I've experienced "not knowing what tomorrow brings." Is that what you are saying in response to, "I don't believe I've experienced tomorrow.
yes.
How would I comprehend this? Please explain."
let me put it this way, have you ever experienced knowing what tomorrow brings?
you and i experienced the expectation of what tomorrow may bring..but certainly not knowing what it will bring, to do so requires an audacious stance, do you agree? because it is impossible to KNOW what tomorrow will bring

That all definitions were made up at some point.
empirical knowledge is required in order to define anything...

If you can think of exception to this, I am most interested.
i find it interesting that you made up the definition for glipper...
when you have nothing to go by, no empirical evidence that supports the definition of it, you yourself said it...you made up the understanding FOR YOURSELF i have no way of confirming your definition...it's just a made up word. what can give this made up word meaning is empirical knowledge of what it is defining.
lets say for the sake of argument there are 2 swedes having a conversation next to you and you don't know a lick of swedish, would you understand what they are talking about? it would be preposterous to say you would, why?

This was in response to where you earlier said: what you are saying is that homosexuals aren't homosexuals because what they know of homosexuality isn't correctly judged as homosexuality...

That has been your argument the whole time?
So, your argument has been straw-man the whole time?
I think I'm caught up in that case.
you said:
judgment and understanding are attempting to make sense of idea of 'partial knowledge.' And within relative world, I think there is sense to this. But the deeper awareness I have of knowledge would suggest (strongly) otherwise. That judgment is antithesis of knowledge, and that understanding is for want of knowledge. As if knowledge is not a given, and needs to be sought.
judgement and understanding rely on knowledge of the swedish language, otherwise attempting to speak swedish without knowledge of it would be silly.
if one is not a homosexual, how can they understand what it's like to be one? how can they judge what it is if they don't know what it's like to be a homosexual? they can't! period...it's the equivalent to attempting to speak swedish with out knowing swedish...it's pointless and self defeating trying to show a person who speaks swedish that you understand and judge swedish without the knowledge of the swedish language, right?

yes, you understand what the word "swedish" means...by observing what it is...a foreign language...you haven't experienced what it's like to be one who speaks it.
"to attempt to make sense of an idea" is to make a fool of yourself.
observing the dynamic of the idea is entirely different
the idea is the swedish language...go on, attempt to make your own sense of the swedish language with a swedish speaking person...without any knowledge of swedish. having said that, there are people who make judgments and claim to understand the idea homosexuality who are full of bunk when they don't know homosexuality...because they made up their own understanding of it without knowing it...and make judgments on their failed understanding of it.


You had previously asked, "how can you define what you don't know?" and "how can one judge what they don't know?"

To which I replied, 'happens all the time. You make up an understanding of what a thing is, and then you utilize judgment to essentially draw a distinction between various understandings.'
which fails miserably
which is why intolerance exists. people make up their own understanding without the knowledge...and then base judgments on a fallacy.

i hope i made it plain enough for you to catch up...
:p
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
So couldn't it be said that God then made us with the intention of us becoming evil.
He made us to fellowship with him but for true fellowship he had to give us choice. He allows evil for now for that reason.
If having the ability to have choice results in evil and God decided not to make us incorruptible(how is that possible without breaking free will?) then isn't he still responsible for evil.
It can result in people choosing good or evil. When we are finally made incorruptible, that's a good thing. I don't want to sin, but I still do because of my sinful nature. We look forward to being free completely from sin which only brings destruction and death. We musn't hold God responsible for evil we commit.

Actually lets look at the whole Adam and Eve story. Let's say that Adam and Eve didn't eat of that fruit. Okay, cool.... Now we have Cain and Abel whom we have to keep from this tree. Fast forward a few thousand years, now we have billions of people who can't die and none of them can eat this tree. Just how big is this garden in the first place? Is it not relatively obvious can God intended sin to enter the world? Does this not make him at least somewhat responsible for original sin? Wouldn't a reasonable person agree that the parent should hold some responsibility for setting their own children up to intentionally fail? Or does all sense of responsibility and morality go out the window when you bring your God into the picture?
Again, for true fellowship he had to give us free will to do good or bad.

Where were the souls before Jesus died? If all were in the grave, then surely God upped the stakes of sin. If all were in Hell, how can any sane person say it was "good" for 2,000ish years to send all souls to suffer forever?
So, you would bow to a tyrant?
People who died before Jesus died for us were saved the same we we are, by faith in God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. (Romans 4:3) People perished the same way, too, through unbelief. But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness? And to whom sware he that they should not enter into his rest, but to them that believed not? So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief. (Hebrews 3:17-19)
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
People who died before Jesus died for us were saved the same we we are, by faith in God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. (Romans 4:3) People perished the same way, too, through unbelief. But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness? And to whom sware he that they should not enter into his rest, but to them that believed not? So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief. (Hebrews 3:17-19)
Then...what exactly did Jesus do again?
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
Then...what exactly did Jesus do again?
I believe He paid for all the sins of all the world. Those who died before He came looked forward to the cross while we look back. While the Hebrews had the OT which foretold of his coming, everyone else had the Creation and their conscience, God's laws written on their hearts, so they knew there was a Creator God and they knew right from wrong. Those who believed God and called upon him were saved, those who turned from God to worship the creature rather than the Creator were given over to a reprobate mind and lost.
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
I believe He paid for all the sins of all the world. Those who died before He came looked forward to the cross while we look back. While the Hebrews had the OT which foretold of his coming, everyone else had the Creation and their conscience, God's laws written on their hearts, so they knew there was a Creator God and they knew right from wrong. Those who believed God and called upon him were saved, those who turned from God to worship the creature rather than the Creator were given over to a reprobate mind and lost.
Can you explain the difference between that and the present time please?
 

InChrist

Free4ever
Then...what exactly did Jesus do again?


Jesus paid for the sins of the world at a certain point in history. When a person believes God and trusts His way of salvation by faith, that saving faith is applied to their life no matter what time in history they live.
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
Can you explain the difference between that and the present time please?
The way we are saved is the same, through faith in God who gave us His Son, the Messiah. But there is a big difference in that when one believes in Christ now, the Holy Spirit, who he sent at Pentecost, takes up residence in us, seals us unto the day of redemption, gifts us, guides us, teaches us, comforts us, etc.. In the OT, the Holy Spirit did not do all that all the time. Also, we live in what is called the Age of Grace or the New Covenant, which is far better. Romans 16:25 says the preaching of Jesus Christ was a mystery kept secret since the world began. Another mystery God revealed in both the Old and New Testament is that salvation was for everyone who asked, Gentiles included. Anyway, we now have all the promises of God in both Testaments, we have the Holy Spirit, we can know that we have eternal life right now, that it is life and it is eternal, that no one can condemn us or separate us from the love of God nor take us out of his hand. I probably didn't explain that as fully as I could have, forgive me.
 

waitasec

Veteran Member
Jesus paid for the sins of the world at a certain point in history. When a person believes God and trusts His way of salvation by faith, that saving faith is applied to their life no matter what time in history they live.

was that done by god's will or the will of man?
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
The way we are saved is the same, through faith in God who gave us His Son, the Messiah. But there is a big difference in that when one believes in Christ now, the Holy Spirit, who he sent at Pentecost, takes up residence in us, seals us unto the day of redemption, gifts us, guides us, teaches us, comforts us, etc.. In the OT, the Holy Spirit did not do all that all the time. Also, we live in what is called the Age of Grace or the New Covenant, which is far better. Romans 16:25 says the preaching of Jesus Christ was a mystery kept secret since the world began. Another mystery God revealed in both the Old and New Testament is that salvation was for everyone who asked, Gentiles included. Anyway, we now have all the promises of God in both Testaments, we have the Holy Spirit, we can know that we have eternal life right now, that it is life and it is eternal, that no one can condemn us or separate us from the love of God nor take us out of his hand. I probably didn't explain that as fully as I could have, forgive me.
So, the method is the same, but now with added benefits? I would think the early Jewish people in that sense would have a lot more faith than present day Christians...not that that has anything to do with the current topic.
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
So, the method is the same, but now with added benefits?
Yeah, something like that.
I would think the early Jewish people in that sense would have a lot more faith than present day Christians...not that that has anything to do with the current topic.
That may be true, as they were still looking forward to the Messiah and did not have as complete a revelation of God's Word as we have now. Although it is not easy to believe in a man who lived 2,000 years ago either.
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
Yeah, something like that. That may be true, as they were still looking forward to the Messiah and did not have as complete a revelation of God's Word as we have now. Although it is not easy to believe in a man who lived 2,000 years ago either.
But still, the Jews maintain their faith without the aid of the Holy Spirit, as you said. It might be harder to believe in Jesus, but once you do you are backed by the Holy Spirit as proof.

Now, in an attempt to redirect this back to the issue at hand, regardless of Jesus's death, hell exists. How is infinite suffering an acceptable and "just" punishment in relation to finite crimes?

One might say that it isn't a punishment, it's just a consequence of separation from God, but that still doesn't excuse hell as just. Its very existence is immoral.
 

strikeviperMKII

Well-Known Member
I never said I was angry. I said (or was trying to say) that blindly accepting and following the rules just because the person is stronger than you and proclaims themself more moral than you isn't right. If you want to make this about parental issues, so be it. You didn't actually answer me on whether a loving parent would allow their child to suffer forever. You merely said "God is in control, and life sucks, but you can't change God, so live with it".

That's not what I said. I never said God was in control. In fact, God gives up control. That's why he's perfect. We do not have power unless it was given to us from above. That's in the passion, I believe. Luke or John, I forget which. We are in control, which is why we are imperfect. If we're in control, we are the ones putting ourselves into suffering, either by direct or indirect action. Take responsibility for that rather than blaming the parent for not letting you have a cookie, and you can get out of suffering.

This is second half of life thinking. Let go of either or thinking and stop with the 'its all about me'. Your life is not about you, you are not in control, Life is hard, and you're going to die. Learn those truths. Understand them. Live them. It's not going to happen in two seconds, but if you at least try, you'll get somewhere.
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
That's not what I said. I never said God was in control. In fact, God gives up control. That's why he's perfect. We do not have power unless it was given to us from above. That's in the passion, I believe. Luke or John, I forget which. We are in control, which is why we are imperfect. If we're in control, we are the ones putting ourselves into suffering, either by direct or indirect action. Take responsibility for that rather than blaming the parent for not letting you have a cookie, and you can get out of suffering.

This is second half of life thinking. Let go of either or thinking and stop with the 'its all about me'. Your life is not about you, you are not in control, Life is hard, and you're going to die. Learn those truths. Understand them. Live them. It's not going to happen in two seconds, but if you at least try, you'll get somewhere.
Care to explain the contradiction you made here?
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
Now, in an attempt to redirect this back to the issue at hand, regardless of Jesus's death, hell exists. How is infinite suffering an acceptable and "just" punishment in relation to finite crimes?
If the crimes have infinite consequences. Like if an unbeliever compels many others not to believe and they wind up in Hell, the consequences are infinite.

One might say that it isn't a punishment, it's just a consequence of separation from God, but that still doesn't excuse hell as just. Its very existence is immoral.
I find it repugnant, too. But Jesus died to save us from Hell and warned us of Hell, too. I don't think a vile sinner with all their lusts and lies and hate for God would be happy in Heaven, though. I believe there are varying degrees of Hell and that God is merciful, fair and just and I must trust him on this issue.
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
If the crimes have infinite consequences. Like if an unbeliever compels many others not to believe and they wind up in Hell, the consequences are infinite.
Suppose the unbeliever is following logic. For example, there is no demonstrable evidence for heaven or hell. If there were, faith would be a non-issue. Why would God allow people to suffer forever for using their rationality (the thing which separates us from most other animals, unless someone can point me to a gorilla mathematician)?
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
Suppose the unbeliever is following logic. For example, there is no demonstrable evidence for heaven or hell. If there were, faith would be a non-issue. Why would God allow people to suffer forever for using their rationality (the thing which separates us from most other animals, unless someone can point me to a gorilla mathematician)?
I don't think God lets people go to Hell for faulty reasoning. They go to Hell because they are sinners who love their sin, who rejected God and his free gift of eternal life.
 

Gjallarhorn

N'yog-Sothep
I don't think God lets people go to Hell for faulty reasoning. They go to Hell because they are sinners who love their sin, who rejected God and his free gift of eternal life.
...but if it's not faulty reasoning to deny God (lack of proof, hence the requirement of faith)...
 

strikeviperMKII

Well-Known Member
Care to explain the contradiction you made here?

If it was explainable, everyone would know how to resolve it, and there would be no such thing as the problem of evil (which is the basis of or discussion here).

I will say this, though. If you understand that your life is not about you and that you are not in control of it, you will understand yourself far better than any attempt you make without this understanding.

It's like not knowing how good something really is until you don't have it anymore. Then when you get it back, you understand how to live with it more fully.
 

javajo

Well-Known Member
...but if it's not faulty reasoning to deny God (lack of proof, hence the requirement of faith)...
I don't know what more to say. I believe we all have a conscience and the Holy Spirit convicts us we are sinners as we have all sinned. The Creation shows the Creator, so we are without excuse. If one's conscience is so seared by sin that they do not feel the conviction of the Holy Spirit on their life then I don't know much more to say about it.
 

Acim

Revelation all the time
i've always contended understanding and judgement rely on knowledge...

And I've contended that judgment is antithesis of knowledge and that understanding is for want of knowledge.

Knowledge of good and evil is - Thought (High thought) that precedes idea of the two before they are 'put into practice.' In realm of knowledge, the two do not exist, which means, they do not actually exist. But as beliefs based within relative framework (that is illusion, or dream, or nightmare, or what have you), the two are judged to exist in relativistic way. One relying on the other for both existence and understanding. Knowledge is not deceived by any of this. Knowledge supersedes the two (really two sides of same coin) and is why judgment is antithesis of knowledge.

you don't know what glipper means, so why make up a definition?

To make clear the point that all concepts have made up definitions. That all things that are perceived (judged) are given meaning by the perceiver.

do you normally have conversations in a language you don't know to communicate? of course not.

Glipper is an english word. It is in language that has as much sensibility as any other word. Only difference is that it is not a commonly accepted word, yet. But that is really (really really) a minor difference, for that can be overcome rather easily, simply by using glipper in whatever context makes sense to you.

where did i say knowledge needs understanding?
what do you think i meant when i said, knowledge is the foundation of judgement and understanding?

That without knowledge (of a particular thing) a judgment cannot occur, or that understanding cannot occur. Such that, in context of this thread, I think you are attempting to work backwards to make a point that lacks validity. I think you are saying that since we can judge good and evil, and that we understand what the terms mean, then these two things must exist, and that knowledge of them (as two ideas) must come after they have already existed. Which would then lead someone to conclude that 'tree of knowledge of good and evil' must be (allegedly) put there, in Garden, by entity that knows good and evil exists and understands what they are, in similar way to how we have come to understand the terms (starting around 6000 years ago).

And to this general idea, I have said, "Understanding relies on judgment, and judgment lacks knowledge."

In which you've asked me to:
a) do you know what a glipper is? explain your understanding of it...
b) explain how can you define what you don't know?
c) how can one judge what they don't know?

And in response to these questions, I have demonstrated how one can define a term that they do not know, while explaining understanding of it. To which you then replied (and judged really), "you don't know what glipper means, so why make up a definition?"

So, either you're not grasping how things work with judgment and understanding, or we keep going over and over what we've gone over and over about 2 to 3 times so far. To perhaps make it more clear, I fully believe that you can define what you do not know and judge what you do not know. I think making the point easier / clearer for you, would help if you did this with the concept of 'glopper.' If you don't know what glopper is, then it is perhaps ideal example of how you can define and judge something you claim to not know.

At this point, you may say, "but, I'll just be making it up." To which I would say, yes, and that is partly how one defines, judges, understands what they do not know. It is key part really, but once that is taken for granted, the 'made up' part, is no longer seen for what it is - that you give all meaning to that which you think you know. So, imagine you make up definition to glopper, and flash forward 15 years from know, and Oxford Dictionary is now entering glopper as term in their dictionary, that matches your original definition. And at this point, many people use the term in the way you originally understood it, and explained it. It is now a common term. Think at that time, when it is part of common language that you'll have integrity to say, "I still don't even know what glopper is really?" I doubt it. Not so much because if your individual integrity, but more because once the term is used in relational way, it won't matter if it is made up. It may still matter to you, but I would say given enough time and usage, it will get to point where pride replaces doubt, and you conclude to more or less know what glopper is, as if you've always known.

Hence, judgments and understandings of 'good and evil' work the same way. People (like you and me) think we know what these concepts mean, feel we can explain them, provide context to their usage, and in the way language takes things for granted, we might claim, "yes, I know what good and evil are." In reality, we don't know. Not really. And with these two particular concepts, even while there is lots and lots and lots of information about them, all around us, the fact remains, humanity is still making up what these terms mean. Giving them all meaning that they have for us, and taking for granted the process of how the meaning 'returns to us' in a relational way, as if we aren't only one making things up.

let me put it this way, have you ever experienced knowing what tomorrow brings?
you and i experienced the expectation of what tomorrow may bring..but certainly not knowing what it will bring, to do so requires an audacious stance, do you agree? because it is impossible to KNOW what tomorrow will bring

While I don't disagree with added spin, I am saying and believe I was saying, I haven't experienced tomorrow. So, having not experienced that, I would agree it is not possible to know what something I haven't experienced, would bring. I originally said on this tangent: I don't know what the future will bring, and don't know that tomorrow exists, will ever exist. But would you like for me to provide you a definition of tomorrow?

So, I don't know that tomorrow exists, because I've never experienced it, and more or less pretend to know what it references, but the actual idea is not something I believe actually exists. It is literally made up, and while it works in contextual understandings, it has no basis for being empirically known, nor observed.

empirical knowledge is required in order to define anything...

I'll take this as you stating another way of my point that all definitions were at some point made up. To whatever degree you wish to contest that, feel free to use "tomorrow" as working example. I am saying no one reading this has experienced 'tomorrow' while it may be (empirically) deduced in an argument along the following lines:

1 - All days exist
2 - Tomorrow is a day
3 - Therefore tomorrow exists

Even that seems like stretch to me (given premise of all days exist), but is how I think someone would reason that tomorrow exists, even while no one has ever experienced it. If you have another way of explaining how tomorrow actually exists, I'm open to hearing it.

i find it interesting that you made up the definition for glipper...
when you have nothing to go by, no empirical evidence that supports the definition of it, you yourself said it...you made up the understanding FOR YOURSELF i have no way of confirming your definition...it's just a made up word. what can give this made up word meaning is empirical knowledge of what it is defining.

And that empirical knowledge in many cases will come from judgment. I fully believe with a proposed definition of glipper being 'melancholy' that you could find experience in your past where, based on your judgment or say judgment of mental health professional (that you give credence to), you could be persuaded to say, 'instead of all the other words we have for that state of mind, you now think glipper is the most appropriate to your mood at that time.' And thus, this would be one way in which you could confirm the definition that has been provided to you. At a certain level, it doesn't really matter if you confirm it, or even reject it because you see it as made up word. If it gains legs, and people use it, it will gain empirical knowledge all on basis of people thinking it applies, and has (profound) meaning in their lives.

lets say for the sake of argument there are 2 swedes having a conversation next to you and you don't know a lick of swedish, would you understand what they are talking about? it would be preposterous to say you would, why?

Because at no point has anyone explained to me the made up definitions that go with swedish language. Until I have awareness around those, and perhaps use them in reference to my own life, then I will think the words are without any meaning. I may have someone right next to me who says, "yep, their words are not sensible." So, I could conclude that it's not me, but is swedish words, since I found another who agrees with me. Or, I could (probably would) eventually realize that the made up words, do have made up interpretations that are judged as 'very common' among swedish speakers, and that I too can learn the language and apply these to my own experiences.

Just like you could do with glipper given definition I provided.
 
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