Sha'irullah
رسول الآلهة
Seeing two effeminate gay males argue over who looks better in short-shorts? Utterly priceless!
opcorn:
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Why did god create homosexuality?
- Thread starter Sha'irullah
- Start date
Seeing two effeminate gay males argue over who looks better in short-shorts? Utterly priceless!
opcorn:
dgirl1986
Big Queer Chesticles!
Seeing two effeminate gay males argue over who looks better in short-shorts? Utterly priceless!
And also watching peoples heads implode when they find out someone is gay is also priceless.
Oh and girlfriends bickering about how long the other takes to get ready is also priceless lol.
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
The Law of Moses was added to the promise given to Abraham (see Galatians 3:19). This Law details a marriage covenant between the Children of Israel and YAHWEH ELOHIM. The Law itself is similar to the U.S. Constitution in that the Law can be amended, but only in a manner that does not take away or add anything to the commands and intent of the original covenant (see Deuteronomy 5:32 and Deuteronomy 12:32).
Under the covenant relationship established by YAHWEH ELOHIM and agreed to by the Children of Israel, obedience to the Law gives life to the Children of Israel, and disobedience to the Law brings death to them. Of course right here, I am talking about physical life and death (see Deuteronomy 30:15-20).
Culture does not change this life and death situation for anyone under the Law. If anyone imagines or advocates anything contrary to the Law, they are in big trouble. If you desire to live, do not say anything contrary to the Law for it is written:
Isaiah 5:20
20 Woe unto them that call evil good, and good evil; that put darkness for light, and light for darkness; that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!
It is, therefore, far better to remain silent than to speak against the Law. Indeed, this scripture describes the state of those like yourself that teach contrary to the Law:
Isaiah 8:20
20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
If you yourself should desire life, then repent of your lawlessness in speaking contrary to the Law.
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
The Law of Moses was added to the promise given to Abraham (see Galatians 3:19). This Law details a marriage covenant between the Children of Israel and YAHWEH ELOHIM. The Law itself is similar to the U.S. Constitution in that the Law can be amended, but only in a manner that does not take away or add anything to the commands and intent of the original covenant (see Deuteronomy 5:32 and Deuteronomy 12:32).
Under the covenant relationship established by YAHWEH ELOHIM and agreed to by the Children of Israel, obedience to the Law gives life to the Children of Israel, and disobedience to the Law brings death to them. Of course right here, I am talking about physical life and death (see Deuteronomy 30:15-20).
Culture does not change this life and death situation for anyone under the Law. If anyone imagines or advocates anything contrary to the Law, they are in big trouble. If you desire to live, do not say anything contrary to the Law for it is written:
Isaiah 5:20
20 Woe unto them that call evil good, and good evil; that put darkness for light, and light for darkness; that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!
It is, therefore, far better to remain silent than to speak against the Law. Indeed, this scripture describes the state of those like yourself that teach contrary to the Law:
Isaiah 8:20
20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.
If you yourself should desire life, then repent of your lawlessness in speaking contrary to the Law.
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
So, I guess the law against allowing black people to use the white toilets should still be in force, then?
Laws pass in and out as they are necessary. Jesus had his disciples break the Sabbath.
Additionally, since the law is cultural and not moral, let's look at another example: Paul (as well as the Church at Jerusalem) acquiesced to allow Gentiles to remain uncircumcised, since they were not Jews.
Conclusion: Since homosexuality is now recognized as normal and healthful, we have no further need for this law, jus as we have no further need for the injunction against pork or shellfish -- or the wearing of 50/50 cotton/poly shirts.
I am not speaking contrary to the Law, for Mosaic Law does not apply to me as a Gentile. Additionally, Paul said that "if you are led by the Spirit, you are not subject to the Law." (Gal. 5:18) Since I am a Christian in whom the Holy Spirit has been confirmed, I am not subject to the Law -- except where love is concerned.
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
You wrote:
"the law is cultural and not moral"
Where did you get the idea that the Law of Moses is cultural and not moral? The Apostle Paul disagrees with you. He says right here:
Romans 7:7-12
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? ELOHIM forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death.
11 For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me.
12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and right, and good.
Are you attempting to teach me, Sojourner, contrary to the teaching of Paul, that the Law depends upon culture for its holiness, and rightness, and goodness? If that be the case, then no one can know exactly what sin is. I would say, would you not, that this is very convenient for the sodomites, and for the eaters of swine's flesh, and for Sabbath Breakers. I wonder, how can you say that the Law which exists to define sin is cultural? Who told you that this is true?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
You wrote:
"the law is cultural and not moral"
Where did you get the idea that the Law of Moses is cultural and not moral? The Apostle Paul disagrees with you. He says right here:
Romans 7:7-12
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? ELOHIM forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
10 And the commandment, which was ordained to life, I found to be unto death.
11 For sin, taking occasion by the commandment, deceived me, and by it slew me.
12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and right, and good.
Are you attempting to teach me, Sojourner, contrary to the teaching of Paul, that the Law depends upon culture for its holiness, and rightness, and goodness? If that be the case, then no one can know exactly what sin is. I would say, would you not, that this is very convenient for the sodomites, and for the eaters of swine's flesh, and for Sabbath Breakers. I wonder, how can you say that the Law which exists to define sin is cultural? Who told you that this is true?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
FranklinMichaelV.3
Well-Known Member
Does not Isaiah say that God creates and does Good and Evil? The Pharaoh wanted to let the Hebrews go several times, each time God hardened the Pharaoh's heart to prove a point...is that not doing evil?
God was the one who would send the evil spirit to take over King Saul, it would also be God who would allow Ha Satan to persecute Job.
It would seem that God is capable of doing and promoting evil if we look at the OT (I could very well be wrong), so how can we not call evil Good, if all that God does is Good?
God was the one who would send the evil spirit to take over King Saul, it would also be God who would allow Ha Satan to persecute Job.
It would seem that God is capable of doing and promoting evil if we look at the OT (I could very well be wrong), so how can we not call evil Good, if all that God does is Good?
sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
It's not contrary to Paul. If it were, why would Paul argue against circumcision for Gentile Christians?
Sure we can! Is it love and selflessness? Then it's not sin. Simple!
When was the last time you saw someone stoned for adultery? When was the last time you witnessed a levirate marriage? The Law is cultural, as religion is cultural.
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
You asserted that love and selflessness defines sin:
"Sure we can! Is it love and selflessness? Then it's not sin. Simple!"
Indeed, it is simple, Sojourner, when you come to an awareness that love is the fulfillment of the Law. This is according to the teaching of the Apostle Paul:
Romans 13:8-10
8 Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law.
9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.
The type of love that culture advocates brings harm to ones neighbor. This type of love does not fulfill the Law. The love that comes from culture is the source of sexual diseases and all manner of heartache to the participants, all in the name of a pseudo love.
My Messiah Yahushua said it best:
John 14:21
21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him.
The Apostle John makes this type of love witnessed by My Messiah crystal clear in this scripture:
1 John 5:2-3
2 By this we know that we love the children of ELOHIM, when we love ELOHIM, and keep his commandments.
3 For this is the love of ELOHIM, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.
Sodomites, that is, males who sleep with males, do not by their disobedience show that they love ELOHIM. If they loved ELOHIM, they would follow HIS commandment against males making sexual love with one other.
I will ask you directly, Sojourner. If sin is the transgression of the Law, and it is, how do you reckon that the practice of sexual love amongst males is not sin?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
You asserted that love and selflessness defines sin:
"Sure we can! Is it love and selflessness? Then it's not sin. Simple!"
Indeed, it is simple, Sojourner, when you come to an awareness that love is the fulfillment of the Law. This is according to the teaching of the Apostle Paul:
Romans 13:8-10
8 Owe no man any thing, but to love one another: for he that loveth another hath fulfilled the law.
9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
10 Love worketh no ill to his neighbour: therefore love is the fulfilling of the law.
The type of love that culture advocates brings harm to ones neighbor. This type of love does not fulfill the Law. The love that comes from culture is the source of sexual diseases and all manner of heartache to the participants, all in the name of a pseudo love.
My Messiah Yahushua said it best:
John 14:21
21 He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him.
The Apostle John makes this type of love witnessed by My Messiah crystal clear in this scripture:
1 John 5:2-3
2 By this we know that we love the children of ELOHIM, when we love ELOHIM, and keep his commandments.
3 For this is the love of ELOHIM, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous.
Sodomites, that is, males who sleep with males, do not by their disobedience show that they love ELOHIM. If they loved ELOHIM, they would follow HIS commandment against males making sexual love with one other.
I will ask you directly, Sojourner. If sin is the transgression of the Law, and it is, how do you reckon that the practice of sexual love amongst males is not sin?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
That's incorrect, because at the time the Law was enacted, homosexuality was unknown as a normal and healthful orientation. The law is obsolete.
I.S.L.A.M617
Illuminatus
Most Christians believe the Bible to be not only literal but absolute, regardless of current knowledge or public opinion.
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
You wrote:
"It's not contrary to Paul. If it were, why would Paul argue against circumcision for Gentile Christians?"
If you remember, Sojourner, I have stated that the Law could be amended. In Acts 15, the Supreme Court of the Apostolic Assembly ordained that believing male Gentiles were exempt from physical circumcision. This decision was rendered in order that the Scriptures might be fulfilled (see Acts 15:14-16). You yourself have indicated previously that their decision was one of acquiescence. Nothing could be further from the truth.
The Apostle Paul supported the decision of the spiritual Sanhedrin in compliance with this command of the Law (please check out Deuteronomy 17:8-13). Whenever the true Church makes a decision concerning the keeping of the Law, that decision is binding.
So, my point is this: If Paul supported the Law, why would he not be found supporting a decision of the Supreme Court of Spiritual Israel?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
You wrote:
"It's not contrary to Paul. If it were, why would Paul argue against circumcision for Gentile Christians?"
If you remember, Sojourner, I have stated that the Law could be amended. In Acts 15, the Supreme Court of the Apostolic Assembly ordained that believing male Gentiles were exempt from physical circumcision. This decision was rendered in order that the Scriptures might be fulfilled (see Acts 15:14-16). You yourself have indicated previously that their decision was one of acquiescence. Nothing could be further from the truth.
The Apostle Paul supported the decision of the spiritual Sanhedrin in compliance with this command of the Law (please check out Deuteronomy 17:8-13). Whenever the true Church makes a decision concerning the keeping of the Law, that decision is binding.
So, my point is this: If Paul supported the Law, why would he not be found supporting a decision of the Supreme Court of Spiritual Israel?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Yeah, and Paul had a HUGE fight trying to convince his Jewish counterparts, too. And in the meantime, he was preaching that Gentiles didn't have to be circumcised.
The very same dynamic is happening today.
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
My Messiah Yahushua did circumcise, that is, cut off all flesh through HIS crucifixion. All men and woman throughout all time, howbeit unknowingly, have been put to death with HIM (see John 12:32). This gathering and cutting off of all of mankind is a spiritual circumcision which can only be see through the eyes of My Messiah Yahushua, and this spiritual insight and understanding is only given to those who obey HIM (see Acts 5:32).
What this means for those that profess belief in My Messiah Yahushua is utterly astonishing. Believers properly understand that their sinful flesh, that is, the desires and lusts of their flesh, have perished with Messiah in HIS death. Once this is understood, Believers then proceed to bury their dead body of sinful flesh in holy baptism. These believers are buried or immersed in water. Water is a symbol for the Word of ELOHIM. Should anyone willingly immerse their sinful flesh in the Word of ELOHIM, this signifies that the participant is publicly declaring that they themselves will now order their lives according to the Word of ELOHIM, and, having done so, then they rightly arise to a newness of life in My Messiah Yahushua.
Let's say that a practicing male homosexual comes to believe all this about My Messiah Yahushua. Does this new Believer now continue in their sin of arsenocoites? Absolutely, not! If they in truth have come to Messiah Yahushua, they do now begin to order their lives according to HIS Word which prohibits any such activity.
The Apostolic Assembly through the Acts 15 Spiritual Sanhedrin recognized that Gentiles who had come to believe these things about My Messiah Yahushua did not need to be physically circumcised because of the spiritual circumcision which they possess through the crucifixion of Messiah.
Accordingly, in any conflict in the Law, the spiritual fulfillment always takes precedence over the physical fulfillment. The Apostle Paul understood this dynamic, and I testify to you that this dynamic is not taking place today in the gay community as they attempt to persuade us that their activity is holy and righteous and acceptable to YAHWEH ELOHIM.
I challenge you to show me how men having sex with men fulfills any Law. It actually does, but I challenge you or anyone to show me exactly how?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
My Messiah Yahushua did circumcise, that is, cut off all flesh through HIS crucifixion. All men and woman throughout all time, howbeit unknowingly, have been put to death with HIM (see John 12:32). This gathering and cutting off of all of mankind is a spiritual circumcision which can only be see through the eyes of My Messiah Yahushua, and this spiritual insight and understanding is only given to those who obey HIM (see Acts 5:32).
What this means for those that profess belief in My Messiah Yahushua is utterly astonishing. Believers properly understand that their sinful flesh, that is, the desires and lusts of their flesh, have perished with Messiah in HIS death. Once this is understood, Believers then proceed to bury their dead body of sinful flesh in holy baptism. These believers are buried or immersed in water. Water is a symbol for the Word of ELOHIM. Should anyone willingly immerse their sinful flesh in the Word of ELOHIM, this signifies that the participant is publicly declaring that they themselves will now order their lives according to the Word of ELOHIM, and, having done so, then they rightly arise to a newness of life in My Messiah Yahushua.
Let's say that a practicing male homosexual comes to believe all this about My Messiah Yahushua. Does this new Believer now continue in their sin of arsenocoites? Absolutely, not! If they in truth have come to Messiah Yahushua, they do now begin to order their lives according to HIS Word which prohibits any such activity.
The Apostolic Assembly through the Acts 15 Spiritual Sanhedrin recognized that Gentiles who had come to believe these things about My Messiah Yahushua did not need to be physically circumcised because of the spiritual circumcision which they possess through the crucifixion of Messiah.
Accordingly, in any conflict in the Law, the spiritual fulfillment always takes precedence over the physical fulfillment. The Apostle Paul understood this dynamic, and I testify to you that this dynamic is not taking place today in the gay community as they attempt to persuade us that their activity is holy and righteous and acceptable to YAHWEH ELOHIM.
I challenge you to show me how men having sex with men fulfills any Law. It actually does, but I challenge you or anyone to show me exactly how?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
sojourner
Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
That's why the Jerusalem Christians still insisted on a literal circumcision? Because they understood that Christ "effected a spiritual circumcision?" Unfortunately for you, the law regarding circumcision didn't specify a spiritual circumcision. It did specify a physical circumcision.
Not if they're true homosexuals. I guess you haven't heard that it's common knowledge that homosexuality is completely normal, and that "praying the gay away" simply does not work. It only causes emotional issues -- many of them serious.
Since homosexuality is completely normal, it begs the question: Why would God create some to be homosexual if homosexuality is a sin? Why would God call it a sin if it's as natural as heterosexuality?
Uh huh. Yet, again, the Jerusalem Christians still insisted upon a physical circumcision for Jewish Christians who had also been baptized, just as the Gentile Christians had been. And 'round and 'round you go.
1) homosexuality is a sin
2) because God says it's a sin
3) God says it's a sin because the bible says so
5) The bible wouldn't say so if it weren't true
6) because the bible says so.
BTW, I have some lovely swamp land for you to consider in Arizona.
Yeah. Because, since homosexuality has been discovered to be normal and healthy, homosexuals can form healthy, loving and spiritual relationships with their partners, being freed from the lie that they're sinners who don't deserve to love like everyone else. That spiritual awakening to the advocacy of love overrides the physical prohibition.
Right?
Sha'irullah
رسول الآلهة
What I find increasingly funny is that Jesus himself had 2 dad's and 1 surrogate mother. Sounds like a homosexual marriage to me
Sha'irullah
رسول الآلهة
To propose humor to my claims......
The irony here is that Jesus was a man obviously outside of normal sexuality with his obvious asexuality. Asexuality is considered a queer orientation and I myself am actually bisexual to some extent as would Jesus be with his asexuality. It is a neutral and uninvolved stance.
God according to Christians has no sex and is entirely genderless. Yet he is worried about the actions of mixed gender sexuality. But then again god is always called forth in the masculine sense and the Bible excludes lesbianism last that I have read.
Ir only refers to Sodomy and the condemnation of man lying with a man.
The irony here is that Jesus was a man obviously outside of normal sexuality with his obvious asexuality. Asexuality is considered a queer orientation and I myself am actually bisexual to some extent as would Jesus be with his asexuality. It is a neutral and uninvolved stance.
God according to Christians has no sex and is entirely genderless. Yet he is worried about the actions of mixed gender sexuality. But then again god is always called forth in the masculine sense and the Bible excludes lesbianism last that I have read.
Ir only refers to Sodomy and the condemnation of man lying with a man.
Last edited by a moderator:
Agnostic75
Well-Known Member
Latuwr said:
Don't you mean Yeshua, or Yahshua, not Yahushua? According to an article by Dr. Daniel Botkin at The Messiah's Hebrew Name: "Yeshua" Or "Yahshua"?, "Dr. Danny Ben-Gigi says of the Yahshua form that 'there is no such name in Hebrew' and that 'people invented it to fit their theology.'"
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
Shabbat Shalom!
You wrote:
"Uh huh. Yet, again, the Jerusalem Christians still insisted upon a physical circumcision for Jewish Christians who had also been baptized, just as the Gentile Christians had been. And 'round and 'round you go."
Not exactly! Conversion to belief in My Messiah Yahushua made Jewish converts all the more zealous for the physical keeping of the Law (see Acts 21:20-21). Obviously, if a Jewish convert to belief in My Messiah Yahushua had also previously been a practicing homosexual, then of necessity he would have been required to give up his practice of arsenocoites.
The dispensation granted by the Acts 15 Spiritual Sanhedrin for Gentiles did not apply to physical Jews. This is why the Apostle Paul circumcised Timothy. The Jewish converts in Jerusalem considered Timothy to be a physical Jew because his mother was a Jewess. The attitude of the Jerusalem Church towards male Gentiles was totally different. They were not required to observe physical circumcision (see Galatians 2:1-3). This was not a "And 'round and 'round you go" issue for the Jerusalem Believers. They were consistence in their belief and practice.
The issue does become clouded by the teaching of those whom Paul deems as false brethren (see Galatians 2:4). These false brethren apparently held that the physical keeping of the Law always trumped the spiritual keeping of the Law for both Jew and Gentile. Such a teaching does not recognize the nature and source of the grace of ELOHIM.
You further wrote:
"1) homosexuality is a sin" (The Law does not teach that being a homosexual is sin, but it does say that males practicing arsenocoites is a sin. If you should look back at my posts to you, you will discover that nowhere do I say that homosexuality is a sin. I do without reservation say that the practice of homosexuality is a sin.)
"2) because God says it's a sin" (This is true, but is not this thread seeking to understand why and how homosexuality became part of the nature of men and women and the reason why ELOHIM deemed such practice sinful?)
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
Shabbat Shalom!
You wrote:
"Uh huh. Yet, again, the Jerusalem Christians still insisted upon a physical circumcision for Jewish Christians who had also been baptized, just as the Gentile Christians had been. And 'round and 'round you go."
Not exactly! Conversion to belief in My Messiah Yahushua made Jewish converts all the more zealous for the physical keeping of the Law (see Acts 21:20-21). Obviously, if a Jewish convert to belief in My Messiah Yahushua had also previously been a practicing homosexual, then of necessity he would have been required to give up his practice of arsenocoites.
The dispensation granted by the Acts 15 Spiritual Sanhedrin for Gentiles did not apply to physical Jews. This is why the Apostle Paul circumcised Timothy. The Jewish converts in Jerusalem considered Timothy to be a physical Jew because his mother was a Jewess. The attitude of the Jerusalem Church towards male Gentiles was totally different. They were not required to observe physical circumcision (see Galatians 2:1-3). This was not a "And 'round and 'round you go" issue for the Jerusalem Believers. They were consistence in their belief and practice.
The issue does become clouded by the teaching of those whom Paul deems as false brethren (see Galatians 2:4). These false brethren apparently held that the physical keeping of the Law always trumped the spiritual keeping of the Law for both Jew and Gentile. Such a teaching does not recognize the nature and source of the grace of ELOHIM.
You further wrote:
"1) homosexuality is a sin" (The Law does not teach that being a homosexual is sin, but it does say that males practicing arsenocoites is a sin. If you should look back at my posts to you, you will discover that nowhere do I say that homosexuality is a sin. I do without reservation say that the practice of homosexuality is a sin.)
"2) because God says it's a sin" (This is true, but is not this thread seeking to understand why and how homosexuality became part of the nature of men and women and the reason why ELOHIM deemed such practice sinful?)
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Hi Sojourner,
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
Shabbat Shalom!
You wrote:
"Since homosexuality is completely normal, it begs the question: Why would God create some to be homosexual if homosexuality is a sin? Why would God call it a sin if it's as natural as heterosexuality?"
The Apostle wrote this about the Law:
1 Timothy 1:5-10
5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned:
6 From which some having swerved have turned aside unto vain jangling; (the teaching that the practice of homosexuality is not a sin is vain jangling!)
7 Desiring to be teachers of the law; understanding neither what they say, nor whereof they affirm. (Sojourner, Paul right here is speaking of you!)
8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully; (There exists by this statement an unlawful use of the Law, right/wrong/maybe?)
9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind (that is, the practice of arsenocoites), for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
Please understand that according to the Apostle Paul that the Law was made for the lawless and the disobedient. If this is true, and it is, why did ELOHIM give commandments to Adam and Eve, and what does the giving of law to them actually signify?
In other words, Sojourner, what does the giving of commandments to Adam and Eve tell us about their created nature?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Blessings to you through Messiah Yahushua, My YAHWEH and My ELOHIM!
Shabbat Shalom!
You wrote:
"Since homosexuality is completely normal, it begs the question: Why would God create some to be homosexual if homosexuality is a sin? Why would God call it a sin if it's as natural as heterosexuality?"
The Apostle wrote this about the Law:
1 Timothy 1:5-10
5 Now the end of the commandment is charity out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned:
6 From which some having swerved have turned aside unto vain jangling; (the teaching that the practice of homosexuality is not a sin is vain jangling!)
7 Desiring to be teachers of the law; understanding neither what they say, nor whereof they affirm. (Sojourner, Paul right here is speaking of you!)
8 But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully; (There exists by this statement an unlawful use of the Law, right/wrong/maybe?)
9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind (that is, the practice of arsenocoites), for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
Please understand that according to the Apostle Paul that the Law was made for the lawless and the disobedient. If this is true, and it is, why did ELOHIM give commandments to Adam and Eve, and what does the giving of law to them actually signify?
In other words, Sojourner, what does the giving of commandments to Adam and Eve tell us about their created nature?
Thanking you in advance should you be moved to reply, I am,
Sincerely, Latuwr
Presumably this would be also be pseudo heartache? Why must love have boundaries, in fact, is it love if it has boundaries?