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Why Jews don't believe in Jesus

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Bingo, you got it.
Who knew she was apostate also her rabbi? Thanks, hearing your ideas has been funny and sad at the same time. In fact now that you mention it, she also told me her rabbi said all the Jews were killed in the Holocaust because they didn't have mezuzahs up. Did you ever anything like that?
 

Eliana

Member
Who knew she was apostate also her rabbi? Thanks, hearing your ideas has been funny and sad at the same time. In fact now that you mention it, she also told me her rabbi said all the Jews were killed in the Holocaust because they didn't have mezuzahs up. Did you ever anything like that?
Correct, she was an apostate.

I think you are making light of the holocaust by inventing ridiculous things this fictional rabbi said. I don't believe in kabbalah so therefore I think such a statement is nonsense.
 

GoodAttention

Well-Known Member
The way I heard it is that one of his wives had a connection with a rather devout Christian relative who very likely passed on her thoughts. Mohammed could neither read nor write, and of course he had a visitation.
Sounds salacious.

Not to offend, but have you ever been called a self-hate Jew?
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Correct, she was an apostate.

I think you are making light of the holocaust by inventing ridiculous things this fictional rabbi said. I don't believe in kabbalah so therefore I think such a statement is nonsense.
It was not fiction. That's what her rabbi said. So then why do you think all those Jews were killed in the holocaust?
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Sounds salacious.

Not to offend, but have you ever been called a self-hate Jew?
What makes you ask that? I am simply asking reasonable questions. If you believe that reform Jews, and conservative Jews are apostate, I guess that's up to you. Are apostate Jews hated by orthodox Jews?
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
Correct, she was an apostate.

I think you are making light of the holocaust by inventing ridiculous things this fictional rabbi said. I don't believe in kabbalah so therefore I think such a statement is nonsense.
OK, so why do you think all those Jews were killed in the Nazi holocaust? Oh yes, I don't believe in kabbalah either, but don't know why you bring it up about the holocaust. Nope, while it is most certainly fiction as to why all those Jews were killed regarding the mezuzah that is what my mother in law told me. You consider her and her rabbi apostate. So then why do you think so many Jews were killed in the holocaust?
 

InChrist

Free4ever
No you didn't. If Jesus was Jewish and you claim to follow the same G-d, then why don't you follow the Torah? If Jesus said you don't have to follow the Torah then he is apostate and not a Torah observant Jew, is he?
Do you consider yourself to be Torah observant? Do you keep all 613 commandments? What if you break laws, then what now that there’s no priesthood, no temple, and no sacrificial system; all which appear to comprise the heart and essence of the Law in the Torah? Do you pick and choose which laws to keep or not keep ? If so, does that make you an apostate?
I am just trying to understand how keeping the law and being Torah observant works in real life today, in your own life for instance.
 

1213

Well-Known Member
James 4:17 Whoever knows what is right to do and fails to do it, for him it is sin.

I think this covers things pretty well, but I find all of the Letter of James well voiced.
Thank you. I was thinking more where it is said in OT, but that is also good scripture. Although I think this also can leave room for speculation, if we look all other scriptures also.

I think sinful is the opposite of righteous, because:

…He who does righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous. He who sins is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. To this end the Son of God was revealed, that he might destroy the works of the devil. Whoever is born of God doesn't commit sin, because his seed remains in him; and he can't sin, because he is born of God. In this the children of God are revealed, and the children of the devil. Whoever doesn't do righteousness is not of God, neither is he who doesn't love his brother.
1 John 3:7-10

And righteousness means wisdom of the just, and then sinner means the opposite, a person without that wisdom of the just. If person doesn't have the wisdom, it leads to bad actions that then can be called sin, and sin is what sinner does as righteousness is what righteous does.

But, making a mistake is not necessary a sin, because also righteous person can fail:

For a righteous man falls seven times, and rises up again; But the wicked are overthrown by calamity.
Prov. 24:16

I think the difference between righteous and sinner is, righteous doesn't reject God, even when he fails. Righteous person will be sorry and ask forgiveness, when he sees he has done wrongly (like for example David). Sinner doesn't care. This is why I think sin means actually rejecting God, or to be without God. And that can lead to many wrong actions that then can also be called sin.

Everyone who sins also commits lawlessness. Sin is lawlessness.
1 John 3:4
 

1213

Well-Known Member
The point is that Paul is referring to the verse that is about Davids sin as part of the idea that all men are liars, which implies that his argument draws from the idea that David's sin involved him lying. The implication is false and defamatory since David's sin did not involve him lying about anything.

If Paul's argument was true and correct, then why would he refer to David's sin?
Sorry, I don't think Paul is referring to the sin of David. He is just using the same saying "That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged."
 

Betho_br

Active Member
Yes, it is not an inquiry really. The NT authors probably inserted this in thinking it was some kind of home run. It isn't because if you read the text in Hebrew it is clear what the context is: See below.

View attachment 94719

God said to my Master: “Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet.”

I am not referring to "adoni". This word is always used in the Scriptures to describe human masters and lords, but never God. Now, if David calls Him 'Master', how can He at the same time be His son? Jesus' question still stands unanswered, and moreover: What did the Lord say to the Master?

Answer: Sit at my right hand.

Conclusion: The one who spoke is not the one who sat at the right hand, but rather the one who had someone who sat at His right hand...

110:5 The Lord at your right hand will crush kings on the day of His wrath...

Who is this that is at the right hand of the Lord, who will crush the kings of the earth on the day of wrath?

Observations:

A. It cannot be the Lord who said to the Master: sit at my right hand because He is not the one who had someone sit at His right hand, but rather, it was someone who sat at His right hand.

B. We cannot change the positions of the Lord and Master already defined in verse 1 of Psalm 110.

C. We cannot say that in verse 1 of Psalm 110, the one who spoke had someone who sat at His right hand, and then in verse 5 change the positions.
 

Betho_br

Active Member
Jewish Christian is an oxymoron.
The Christological mission of Jesus, which I left in response #146, is that the Jewish Jesus came to set an example. I am still on your first question #1 (The Messiah must be from David's line and from the tribe of Judah; Jesus was not.) and have left Jesus' response, which is actually also another question, so far unanswered.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
It pays to actually read the book you're criticizing..
19 Thou shalt not lend upon usury to thy brother; usury of money, usury of victuals, usury of any thing that is lent upon usury:
20 Unto a stranger thou mayest lend upon usury; but unto thy brother thou shalt not lend upon usury: that the LORD thy God may bless thee in all that thou settest thine hand to in the land whither thou goest to possess it.

- Deuteronomy 23 -

..and that is quite clear .. it's OK to 'rip off' non-Jews, and oppress them financially.

As opposed to you who follows the Quran after rigorous study and much critical thinking..
I became a Muslim through the grace of G-d..
..but I didn't stop there.
G-d gave us intelligence to use .. education is a good thing .. not just in our own inherited Scriptures,
but in all areas of academia.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
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