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Why was God's name removed from most bibles?

Sure. Let's start with the first word of Genesis. It appears in Hebrew as בראשית (b'reisheet)
In understanding that word one needs to consider its root and all the connections that root has to other words. The center/root here is "rosh" meaning head. The word in English gives no indication of any connection to other words related to "head" because "beginning" has no etymological connection to those other words. On a deeper level, we look at the fact that the first word begins with the second letter (the "Bet") but in English "In the" starts the phrase so no understanding on that deeper level is possible. [mystically, we also find meanings in the shape of the letters and the text begins with a "bet" which has a particular shape that a "B" lacks, so that would be lost in translation].

We can then move to the second word "bara". The English for that is "created" but Hebrew has a number of words that could be translated as "created". If I can't look at the precise Hebrew word chosen (to the exclusion of others) then how can I really understand the intent of the text?

The third word is "Elo-him" which is one of many titles for God. Why was this one chosen? If I read a translation I would not understand that there are different terms for God and that they refer to different aspects. Take a look here and see the variety of terms used for "God" -- which is "right" and which clues you in to any intertextuality in the Hebrew?

Those are just some off the cuff concerns about the first 3 words.
So what does the 1st verse in Genesis say? Please translate into English
 

jbg

Active Member
Many bible translations with a preface will admit that it has been replaced. How many times? Come to find out God's name has been removed over 7,000 times per bible!

There is a proper name for God in Hebrew which is "Yhwh." There is a word in Hebrew which means "lord" and it is "Adonay"-or a similar form of the root word.

Why is it important to know God's name?

Joel 2:32 "And everyone who calls on the name of "YHWH" will be saved..."- This verse is also referenced in the Greek scriptures(New Testament) at Acts 2:21 and Romans 10:13.

According to the verses it is of utmost importance to use His name. Many bibles have a rendering of it in Psalm 83:18 "That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth."-King James version

Knowing this helps clarify the Greek scripture in Acts 2:34 "For David did not ascend to the heavens, but he himself says, ‘The LORD said to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand..." which is a quote from the Hebrew scriptures(Old Testament) at Psalm 110:1 "YHWH said to my adonai, 'Sit at my right hand...'"

Ultimately who in the universe would try to hide such a basic bible truth? Since we need to know His name to be saved simply hiding it would be a tactic of Satan. Remember his 1st lie in Genesis? "Certainly you won't die." What a trickster!
The Third Commandment maybe? I'm no Biblical scholar, mind you.
 
The Third Commandment maybe? I'm no Biblical scholar, mind you.
Probably; along with Satan trying to distort truth. Removing it would be a tradition man started. God had his name recorded for a reason and never said to remove it.
 
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metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
Probably; along with Satan trying to distort truth. Removing it would be a tradition man started. God had his name recorded for a reason and never said to remove it.
So, iyo, was Jesus wrong what he taught in his Two Commandments? If not, then what's the problem?
 

Brian2

Veteran Member
Jews historically and biblically are called "sons of God", but the "the" does add another element, no doubt.

However, it is possible that Jesus may have been using the concept of "essence" when referring to himself in that manner, and there's reason to believe that this is possible. So, it maybe could be looked at as Jesus saying that he is of the essence of God but not technically God.

I would say that anyone who is of the essence of God is somehow of God.
Heb 1:1 Long ago, at many times and in many ways, God spoke to our fathers by the prophets, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things, through whom also he created the world. 3 He is the radiance of the glory of God and the exact imprint of his nature/essence, and he upholds the universe by the word of his power.
We are told in the OT that nobody is like God or comparable to God, but then the NT gives us Jesus who is exactly like God and comparable. He is even born of a virgin with His Father being God, so has the nature of His Father,,,,,,,,,,,, God nature. More that just human nature.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
So what does the 1st verse in Genesis say? Please translate into English
Tough to do. Maybe "At the beginning [of creation] Elo-him created the sky and the land"

but even that is sorely lacking because it can't address all the issues the Hebrew reveals.
 

metis

aged ecumenical anthropologist
I would say that anyone who is of the essence of God is somehow of God.
The early Church periodically used Greek philosophy, especially that of Aristotle and to a lesser extent Plato. The Eucharist references clearly use it but also with the Trinitarian doctrine in regard to essence:
es·sence
  1. the intrinsic nature or indispensable quality of something, especially something abstract, that determines its character:
    "conflict is the essence of drama"

    • PHILOSOPHY
      a property or group of properties of something without which it would not exist or be what it is.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
That makes absolutely no sense.
I'm not on the same 'team' as Brian, but that has been a little problem for some to analyze. (Brian, sorry...)
The reasonable recognition for many has to be that the angel was speaking for the Almighty and Moses recognized it as such. Plus the sequence of events after that bolstered the idea that this particular God was backing Moses. Moses already knew his God was different than other gods, including those of Pharaoh.
It wasn't like it was a one-man deal with messages from beyond. But verified over and over again that it was the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob "talking" to Moses by means of an angel. This makes it more and more coherent and better to understand.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
why do you capitalize the word lord? Hebrew has no capital letters and the word there is "ladoni" ('to my master'). Genesis 24:36 has the same word in Hebrew. In your English version is the word lord capitalized there?
For those who recognize what it means and signifies, it makes sense. There is one true God. He is the God with a capital G of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. He has a name. He also has a designation. God. Lord. and more.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
For those who recognize what it means and signifies, it makes sense. There is one true God. He is the God with a capital G of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. He has a name. He also has a designation. God. Lord. and more.
So it is arbitrary but based on a pre-existing schema even if it conflicts with the actual meaning of the word (and the conscious choice of that word vs any other).
 
The problem is that you're making a mountain out of a molehill while ignoring the real "mountain" (Jesus' Two Commandments").
Your empty judgments are a little tiresome. Theres nothing wrong with keeping worship clean and accurate.
again, like the root of the Hebrew words, the other words which might translate to the same catch-all in English but have discrete meanings in the Hebrew. And all the others. A translation simply can't do the original justice.

By whom? Based on what evidence?
By Moses for one. But thats only if you know that the scriptures came through God. If you dont, scriptures wont mean too much.

But Moses said to the true God: “Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, ‘The God of your forefathers has sent me to you,’ and they say to me, ‘What is his name?’ What should I say to them?” 14 So God said to Moses: “I Will Become What I Choose to Become.” And he added: “This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘I Will Become has sent me to you.’” 15 Then God said once more to Moses: “This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is how I am to be remembered from generation to generation.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
So it is arbitrary but based on a pre-existing schema even if it conflicts with the actual meaning of the word (and the conscious choice of that word vs any other).
I don't understand your remark. Maybe you didn't understand mine.
 

Brickjectivity

Veteran Member
Staff member
Premium Member
Joel 2:32 "And everyone who calls on the name of "YHWH" will be saved..."
I think taking that literally in the way you are doing voids it of its actual meaning, and using your voice to speak a word does not "Call upon the name of the LORD." I think you're so very far from understanding what this is about. I will not explain to you in this thread what calling on the name of the LORD is, however I will show a verse or two which directly contradicts what you are claiming we must do. I also think whoever has tried to teach you this is manipulating you, so please watch your back and verify their integrity and their character. If you can't get to know them then just ignore them. Which is what I do to anyone who shows up on RF claiming this.


[Psa 116:4 NIV] 4 Then I called on the name of the LORD: "LORD, save me!"
[Mat 7:21 NIV] 21 "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

The reasoning behind Matthew 7:21 is beyond the scope of this thread. I'm only putting it here to demonstrate that 'No', you do not know what you are talking about. It is demonstrable that you just have no idea what this really is talking about.
 

rosends

Well-Known Member
I don't understand your remark. Maybe you didn't understand mine.
The text of 110:1 uses a word which does not mean God or anything related to God. I asked why put a capital L on the word "Lord" if that's not what the word means. Your answer is that
"For those who recognize what it means and signifies, it makes sense."
That requires
1. the reader agrees with your understanding before reading
2. therefore that person can accept the inconsistency of this translation
3. that inconsistency is used as a basis for explaining an entire nature of God
4. that belief about God is a central element in your understanding in step 1.

God is plural because
that word is capitalized and
that word is capitalized
because God is plural

someone who doesn't agree with your assessment of "what it means" won't ever have it make sense. So it only makes sense to those who a priori agree with your system of textual understanding. And the sense it makes is what supports that system by helping to establish the theology.
 
I think taking that literally in the way you are doing voids it of its actual meaning, and using your voice to speak a word does not "Call upon the name of the LORD." I think you're so very far from understanding what this is about. I will not explain to you in this thread what calling on the name of the LORD is, however I will show a verse or two which directly contradicts what you are claiming we must do. I also think whoever has tried to teach you this is manipulating you, so please watch your back and verify their integrity and their character. If you can't get to know them then just ignore them. Which is what I do to anyone who shows up on RF claiming this.


[Psa 116:4 NIV] 4 Then I called on the name of the LORD: "LORD, save me!"
[Mat 7:21 NIV] 21 "Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.

The reasoning behind Matthew 7:21 is beyond the scope of this thread. I'm only putting it here to demonstrate that 'No', you do not know what you are talking about. It is demonstrable that you just have no idea what this really is talking about.
You havent shown anything as being different.
 
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