What nonsense mate. Why do you do this? Don't pretend to know arabic and try to teach others when you have no education in it. Please dont.
Imma can indeed be used before a verb to introduce alternatives or to emphasize an inevitable outcome. For instance, it might mean "either" or "surely" depending on the context. However, it’s not accurate to say it always means "surely" before a verb. The correct interpretation depends on the specific sentence structure and context. This is called Assiyaak in arabic hermeneutics. Please brother. This is just embarrassing and dishonest.
When it's not directly followed by a verb, it often implies a conditional or alternative scenario, translating to "if" or "either/or". It sets up a condition or choice between multiple possibilities.
That's irrelevant. And false. This is not a standard interpretation. The emphasis or meaning of inevitability usually comes from the context or other syntactical elements, not solely from Imma being before a verb. What are you talking about? You know a decent person will never try to teach things they don't know anything about. I don't know where you are cutting and pasting arabic which any child could do. But you are making things up. Or someone is lying to you my friend.
I will not engage with such dishonesty.
Ciao.
1. Even if, let's assume, it should be translated as "If there comes to you Messengers", then still shows the possibility. So, if Allah meant to say Muhammad is the last Messenger, He wouldn't consider the possibility.
2. God knows His own plan about future, if He wants to send more Messengers or not. So, why should He say "if there comes to you Messengers"? You make it sounds like, Allah was not sure, or did not know whether or not He will send more Messengers, therefore He said "If there comes to you Messengers".
Either Allah will send more Messengers or Not. There is no "If" or uncertainty for what Allah plans to do.
3. Beside this, let me show another verse which have the same words in it:
2:38
قُلۡنَا ٱهۡبِطُوا۟ مِنۡهَا جَمِیعࣰاۖ فَإِمَّا یَأۡتِیَنَّكُم مِّنِّی هُدࣰى فَمَن تَبِعَ هُدَایَ فَلَا خَوۡفٌ عَلَیۡهِمۡ وَلَا هُمۡ یَحۡزَنُونَ
Here again same phrase فَإِمَّا یَأۡتِیَنَّكُم appears
Look at translation by Muhammad Asad:
"We did say, "Down with you all from this [state],"
there shall, none the less, most certainly come unto you guidance from Me: and those who follow My guidance need have no fear, and neither shall they grieve" 2:38
Now, same Translator, when it comes to verse 7:35, he translates the same phrase differently:
"O CHILDREN of Adam!
Whenever there come unto you apostles of your own, conveying My messages unto you, then all who are conscious of Me and live righteously - no fear need they have, and neither shall they grieve"
Why do you think is that?
Here is another translation by pickthall
"We said: Go down, all of you, from hence; but
verily there cometh unto you from Me a guidance; and whoso followeth My guidance, there shall no fear come upon them neither shall they grieve" 2:38
"O Children of Adam!
When messengers of your own come unto you who narrate unto you My revelations, then whosoever refraineth from evil and amendeth - there shall no fear come upon them neither shall they grieve" 7:35
Now look at translation by yusuf Ali:
"We said: "Get ye down all from here;
and if, as is sure, there comes to you Guidance from me, whosoever follows My guidance, on them shall be no fear, nor shall they grieve" 2:38
Here he says "as is Sure"
Now when it comes to verse 7:35, he translates it differently:
"O ye Children of Adam!
whenever there come to you messengers from amongst you, rehearsing My signs unto you,- those who are righteous and mend (their lives),- on them shall be no fear nor shall they grieve" 7:35
Now let's see Sahih International:
We said, "Go down from it, all of you. And
when guidance comes to you from Me, whoever follows My guidance - there will be no fear concerning them, nor will they grieve.
O children of Adam,
if there come to you messengers from among you relating to you My verses, then whoever fears Allah and reforms - there will be no fear concerning them, nor will they grieve.
How is it, the same Translators, translate the same phrase differently in two different verses?
Isn't it becasue they were told by Ulama that, Islam is Final Religion, and thus their translations were effected by that?