Ehav4Ever
Well-Known Member
Can you provide the actual wording of the Baal Shem Tov on that? Also, can you provide others who make the same assessment. Again, what you have cited is a Hasidut source. Thus, at the moment you have only established what you say the Ba'al Shem Tov stated but not what others who are not in Hasidut stated.No, not on chassidus, this is Torah.
Anyway, a similar concept is cited here:
citing the verse, "Forever, O G‑d, Your word stands in the heavens," the Baal Shem Tov explains that unlike human speech – which once spoken is gone – G‑dly "speech" is everlasting. This means that the Ten Utterances used to create the world continue to stand, constantly re-creating the world.
So, Psalm 119 is cited, with the same wording, basically. And no one comments on כִּי־טוֹב יְהֹוָה לְעוֹלָם חַסְדּוֹ וְעַד־דֹּר וָדֹר אֱמוּנָתֽוֹ׃ saying, no-no, this isn't literal. It's pretty obvious. Kind of like "We were slaves in egypt is obvious". Remember when you said that?
Further, just based on this alone you can't relate this what the English "emotions" mean in the English langauge.