Limo
Active Member
Seeing as you are bringing up academic scholarship, there are quite a few scholars who have tried to solve these 'inconsistencies' between the Quran and Jewish & Christian tradition with recourse to attempts to identify specific sects that held heterodox beliefs that match the Quranic narrative. The above example appears to be one of these.
These however are not very convincing as they rely on the traditional Islamic narrative that the Hijaz was a pagan backwater isolated from the rest of the region and Muhammad came into contact with these heterodox groups who had fled to the periphery to escape persecution. More recent scholarship has focused on the clear evidence that the initial audience of Muhammad's teachings must have been reasonably well versed in the Abrahamic traditions, as the Quran is a critique of, and discourse on, these. It would not have made any sense to isolated pagans, as there is too high a degree of intertextuality
I'm not to familiar with the above example, or the Jewish narrative, but there are more famous ones regarding the passage "And when God said, 'O Jesus son of Mary, didst thou say unto men, "Take me and my mother as gods, apart from God"?", where scholars sought to link this to a sect like the Kollyridians, who perhaps worshipped Mary as a god.
The Mary example can much more clearly be linked to a documented mainstream Christian polemic in the preceding centuries against the excessive veneration of saints, that finds its analogue in the Quran which is a rhetorical text.
Also, the text you quoted is 30 years old, and a lot has changed in scholarship since then, especially a move away from the uncritical acceptance of the Sirah history towards the view that it is more explanatory narrative to make sense of the Quran, rather than actual history. While there is no evidence that it does not refere to a heterodox sect, to suggest it does is purely speculative and has no real supporting evidence outside of simple convenience.
As to what else it could be, some people like to argue that it is a 'mistake' in the Quran, which I don't agree with as it is too theologically sophisticated a text to make basic errors. I do tend to think that the answer is to be found in more orthodox beliefs, rather than more heterodox ones though. Treating this passage as rhetorical rather than purely literal would be my personal opinion on the topic.
This would be similar to the Mary example, where others are being criticised for more 'technical' violations of the unity of God, rather than outright deification of others.
I don't know if Gordon Darnell Newby is one of scholars who are trying to solve conflicts between Islam, Judiasm, and Christinty. I don't know also if he concluded about the Jews who worshiped Ezra or Uzair in the context of reconciling or not but ....
but I see his statement is purely referring to Jewish resources only and no Quran in the context
Regarding Mariam as Goddess example. We can't assign a church in Christianity and call it the orthodox and others as heterodox.