Isa 65:17 For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind.
2Pe 3:12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God,
It's gonna be sweet!:yes:
Amen to that !!! :shout
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Isa 65:17 For, behold, I create new heavens and a new earth: and the former shall not be remembered, nor come into mind.
2Pe 3:12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God,
It's gonna be sweet!:yes:
When people read their own interpretation into scripture much of it becomes blurred.Physical? No
So, the United States "of" America isn't a place? As long as you are playing semantics did you notice that "Heaven" is a place and "God" isn't?Scripture teaches Christ and the apostles taught the gospel of the kingdom of God. Sometimes it's alone, and sometimes as "gospel of the kingdom." Other times it appears as the "gospel of the kingdom of God" or the equivalent phrase "gospel of the kingdom of heaven." Recognize this version of the phrase says, "OF heaven," not "IN heaven." It is heaven's kingdom, and this is a big difference. Just as kingdom OF God means God's kingdom, not the kingdom IN God, the same is true of the kingdom OF heaven, or heaven's kingdom. The preposition "of" connotes possession. The phrase kingdom of God is synonymous with kingdom of heaven.
Way too funny.:ignore::cover:Christ did reign for a thousand years, it's referred to as the Dark Ages.
So, the United States "of" America isn't a place? As long as you are playing semantics did you notice that "Heaven" is a place and "God" isn't?
So, in light of Luke 17:21 (KJV), "Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you," is that place inside of the believer?A careful reading of my statement will disclose the fact I never disputed heaven being a place.
So, in light of Luke 17:21 (KJV), "Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you," is that place inside of the believer?
What a bunch of ignorant fools mistranslating a simple thing like that. Who even let them near a Bible to begin with? Perhaps it just meant that the Kingdom of God is a spiritual Kingdom and the reference to "within you" is a generic term meaning man. Otherwise if the Kingdom of God was Christ, are you implying that the "place" where the Kingdom exists is Christ?Upon casual reading of this verse, one can conclude that the kingdom of God is here with us now, either in the form of the Church or in the hearts of men. As sincere and as noble this belief may be, it does not come from the Bible. To correctly interpret this verse, we need to be reminded who Christ was addressing. The first part of verse 20 gives the answer: " And when He was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, He answered them and said..." Christ was talking to the Pharisees--not to His disciples! The Pharisees asked Him, "When will your kingdom come?"
His answer: " The kingdom of god is within you". Could Christ have meant that his kingdom was within the Pharisees--men He called "hypocrites" and "blind guides", "who were full of extortion and excess," who were like "whitewashed tombs, which appeared beautiful outward, but...within [were] full of dead mens bones, and all uncleanness" (Matt 23:21, 23-27)?
A careful study will reveal the phrase within you is a mistranslation. The New King James margin says, in your midst. The New English Bible says, is among you. The Revised Standard Version says, in the midst of you. Christ was telling these carnal men that His kingdom was in their presence. Christ was referring to Himself. He represented Gods kingdomHis government. While Jesus was a flesh and blood man, He was also the Messiah, born to become a king. He never sinned or went against His Fathers will. He was the perfect representative of Gods government.
Perhaps it just meant that the Kingdom of God is a spiritual Kingdom and the reference to "within you" is a generic term meaning man. Otherwise if the Kingdom of God was Christ, are you implying that the "place" where the Kingdom exists is Christ?
I'm not disageeing with either point.A fundamental principle in biblical interpretation is to take everything literal until proven otherwise. There are a plethora of verses and parables, which I can present upon request, that picture a literal kingdom or government being set up by Christ and His Saints upon His return--right here on earth. Complete with laws, territories, and human subjects. May God speed that day!
You seem to go to quite long lengths to argue for your point being the way you see it. The simple explanation is that the Kingom of God is a spiritual kingdom and the kingdom of Heaven is a physical one. Have you ever wondered why the use of "Kingdom of Heaven" is only found in Matthew?The kingdom of God is Christ's kingdom. He was the sole representative when He uttered Luke 17:21 to the Pharisees. So in a sense, yes, the kingdom of God was in their midst. This is akin to an ambassador of country. To the host country, that ambassador not only represents that country but in essence "is" that country.
Unless of course He wasn't speaking directly of them but generically of man.The Greek word used for "within" is entos (Stongs G1787). It is used twice in the NT. Here are the Strong's definitions:
within, inside
a) within you i.e.
b)in the midst of you (used in various translations)
c) within you i.e. your soul
The context in which the word is used will determine which definition will be utilized. In Luk 17:21, the context clearly indicates He was not telling the Pharisees, which He referred to as, "brood of vipers" and "evil and adulterous" that the kingdom of God was within them. So that eliminates a and c!
I'm not disageeing with either point.
You seem to go to quite long lengths to argue for your point being the way you see it
The simple explanation is that the Kingom of God is a spiritual kingdom and the kingdom of Heaven is a physical one. Have you ever wondered why the use of "Kingdom of Heaven" is only found in Matthew?
Unless of course He wasn't speaking directly of them but generically of man.
You seem to have forgotten my premise that the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven are two seperate things.So what is causing you to spiritualize away the literal kingdom?
Not the way I see it. It's the way the bible interprets it. The bible interprets itself. Scriptual evidence of a literal kingdom is overwhelming, while proof of a spiritual kingdom is non-existent.
Or it could be that Matthew is a very Jewish book and Christ came offering the Jewish people an immediate kingdom if they would only accept Him as Messiah and King. The "Kingdom" He was offering them was the litteral physical Kingdom they were awaiting. After they rejected Him the 'Kingdom" He offered until the physical kingdom comes is the spiritual "Kingdom of Heaven."Some scholars believe Matthew used the Greek word for "heaven" instead of the Greek word for "God" because, it was the Jewish practice to avoid using God's name as an act of piety. Matthew was a Jew writing to other Jews. In Matthew, "heaven" stands for God. (McKenzie, John L. Dictionary of the Bible, Simon & Schuster, 1995, p 480;France, R.T. Tyndale New Testament Commentaries: Matthew," Inter-varsity Press 1985 reprinted in this format 2008 p.49).
What am I basing what on? You seem to believe I'm arguing something I'm not.What are you basing this on?? Please provide scriptural support.
You seem to have forgotten my premise that the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven are two seperate things.
Or it could be that Matthew is a very Jewish book and Christ came offering the Jewish people an immediate kingdom if they would only accept Him as Messiah and King. The "Kingdom" He was offering them was the litteral physical Kingdom they were awaiting. After they rejected Him the 'Kingdom" He offered until the physical kingdom comes is the spiritual "Kingdom of Heaven."
What am I basing what on? You seem to believe I'm arguing something I'm not.
Unless of course He wasn't speaking directly of them but generically of man.
Ok, let's back up to looking @ Luke 17:21. You stated that it was a mistranslation and offered another translation than my KJV. It is translated as "within you" by, the NKJV, NIV, ASV, YNG, WEB, and HNV. So, perhaps it is not clear that it is mistranslated. Can you definitively state why the translators in your version stated it the way they did. Also how's your Greek?I understand , but you are not providing any scriptural support for your premise.
Also how's your Greek?
So, perhaps it is not clear that it is mistranslated. Can you definitively state why the translators in your version stated it the way they did.
You seem to have forgotten my premise that the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven are two seperate things.
Ok, let's back up to looking @ Luke 17:21. You stated that it was a mistranslation and offered another translation than my KJV. It is translated as "within you" by, the NKJV, NIV, ASV, YNG, WEB, and HNV.
I tried just looking up definition of words while translating Ovid in High School. It didn't work too well (according to my Latin teacher who gave me a C). This is why I asked how your Greek was. Do you have extensive experience translating Greek? Me re-reading post # 50 will not clarify this.I thought we went over the Greek definition in post #50?
Did you offer any direct Scriptural supporting evidence that Jesus was speaking as an ambassador?There is no scriptural evidence supporting the premise that Jesus was referring to mankind in general. He was, in essence, telling the Pharisees the king of the future kingdom was in their presence.
I'll address this later. One point at a time in rebuttal.Here's irrefutable proof that the kingdom of heaven and kingdom of God are synonymous and not two separate kingdoms. Mat 4:17-19 and Mark 1:15-17 are parallel accounts.
Which is why I asked you if you had any supporting evidence, from the translators, as to why they chose a particular rendering.There are just as many translations that have, "in your midst" or "among you" or "here with you" Like the NIV, ESV, CEV, RSV, NLT. We need to exercise great caution not to base doctrine "solely" on the number of translations a particular word appears.
You're semantic diatribe proved nothing. Remember, Bill Clinton tried this approach as well.Let's recap what we've discussed so far: Based on supporting scriptures and scholarly sources, we've proven that the kingdom of Heaven and kingdom of God are synonymous. In earlier posts, we've proven "of" connotes ownership and not a place. So it's the kingdom of heaven or God not "in" heaven or "in" God.
I tried just looking up definition of words while translating Ovid in High School. It didn't work too well (according to my Latin teacher who gave me a C). This is why I asked how your Greek was. Do you have extensive experience translating Greek? Me re-reading post # 50 will not clarify this.Did you offer any direct Scriptural supporting evidence that Jesus was speaking as an ambassador?
I'll address this later. One point at a time in rebuttal.
Which is why I asked you if you had any supporting evidence, from the translators, as to why they chose a particular rendering.
You're semantic diatribe proved nothing. Remember, Bill Clinton tried this approach as well.
I'm sorry to say but your rebuttal was full of a whole lot of nothing.
I'll have to assume not since you did not answer.Do you have extensive experience translating Greek?
I'll assume not since you didn't answer.Did you offer any direct Scriptural supporting evidence that Jesus was speaking as an ambassador?
I'll assume not since you didn't answer.Which is why I asked you if you had any supporting evidence, from the translators, as to why they chose a particular rendering.