• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Was Jesus gay?

Me Myself

Back to my username
Yes but sometimes in those days eunuch could also be a euphemism for guess what...

You sure abut that? what´s your source? Is there any other place in the bible where that is called eunuch? I thought they much prefered "abomination" to petty euphemisms :D
 

CynthiaCypher

Well-Known Member
You sure abut that? what´s your source? Is there any other place in the bible where that is called eunuch? I thought they much prefered "abomination" to petty euphemisms :D

Several Roman sources. I think the guy who wrote the Golden *** uses it at times
 

CynthiaCypher

Well-Known Member
Do you have access to the whole article? I can put it online for you if you don't. If you do, I'd love to hear your thoughts

The point of mentioning the qumran documents is that celibacy was hardly unheard of. In fact, cross-culturally a certain type of religious thought tends to involve celibacy.

I would love to read it if you have it
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Yes but sometimes in those days eunuch could also be a euphemism for guess what...
The Greek eunouchos was used to refer both to celibates and castrated men, but I don't recall off hand it being used to mean gay (and I just checked the LSJ and the BDAG and neither lists homosexual among the entries). Also, according to some the term would have no meaning in the Roman world. The dichotomy wasn't gay/straight but penetrated/unpenetrated. This wouldn't really apply in the Jewish realm, however.
 
Last edited:

CynthiaCypher

Well-Known Member
The Greek eunochos was used to refer both to celibates and castrated men, but I don't recall off hand it being used to mean gay (and I just checked the LSJ and the BDAG and neither lists homosexual among the entries). Also, according to some the term would have no meaning in the Roman world. The dichotomy wasn't gay/straight but penetrated/unpenetrated. This wouldn't really apply in the Jewish realm, however.
Or it could refer to men for whom a heterosexual marriage could not be consummated
 

LegionOnomaMoi

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Same term Justin used when he wrote his laws...eunouchos
The emperor? His native tongue was latin if memory serves, and so was most of the Justinian Codex. Also, the Greek of that day wasn't the greek of Jesus' day. The koine period had ended by then.
 
Top