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Which text from the Christian Bible uniquely proves that Jesus is Almighty God?

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
You have your opinions but I don't think that they're worth much. When two are one that means they are a single element. When a man and a woman are joined, they are one even though they exist separately. It is the same with the Trinity: they exist separately but they are one.

If you can't understand the Trinity there is nothing I can do about it.
Adam came first. He was older than Eve.
 

cataway

Well-Known Member
If you bother to read the Bible, you will see how ludicrous your post is.

John 15:26, "When the Advocate [the Holy Spirit ("persongod" in your words)] comes, whom I will send you from the Father—the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father—he will testify about me."

Right there, in one verse, is the proof of the Trinity.
using that kind of logic jimb uses would make '',me ,myself ,and I '' a trinity . I checked with myself ,an found out its not the way it works
 

mangalavara

नमस्कार
Premium Member
No,it doesn't. Where does it say the three persons are equal to each other forming one God?

Jimb quoted John 15.26:

“When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, namely, the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, He will testify about Me (NASB).

I agree with @jimb that this verse is evidence for the Trinity, though I would say it is just some of the evidence for the Trinity. In the following, I will explain how John 15.26 is some evidence for the Trinity.

First, Jesus mentions the Helper/Advocate and that this Helper would testify of Jesus. The title (Helper) and the action (to testify) together imply that Jesus is speaking of a person. Now, anybody can call himself an advocate and pretend to testify about something, so Jesus tells them the origin of the Helper, where the Helper comes from.

Second, he tells them the origin of the Helper by stating he is the ‘Spirit of truth who comes from the Father.’ The Greek term translated as ‘comes from’ is ἐκπορεύεται or ekporeúetai, which is traditionally translated into English as ‘proceeds from.’ If I state that I proceeded from a room, you know that I as a creature had to enter that room from elsewhere and then leave it. On the other hand, nowhere in the Bible does it state that the Spirit came from elsewhere, entered the Father, and then proceeded from the Father. The implication is that the Spirit originated from the Father by procession. It is like saying the Spirit was ‘spirated’ or breathed out by God. If God the Father is not a composite being, in other words, not a creature, then his Spirit, his own Breath as it were, must be exactly what he is—God, the divine. This is the implication. Altogether, the obvious personhood of the Spirit and the implication of his divine essence is evidence that supports the Trinity.
 

cataway

Well-Known Member
Jimb quoted John 15.26:

“When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, namely, the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, He will testify about Me (NASB).

I agree with @jimb that this verse is evidence for the Trinity, though I would say it is just some of the evidence for the Trinity. In the following, I will explain how John 15.26 is some evidence for the Trinity.

First, Jesus mentions the Helper/Advocate and that this Helper would testify of Jesus. The title (Helper) and the action (to testify) together imply that Jesus is speaking of a person. Now, anybody can call himself an advocate and pretend to testify about something, so Jesus tells them the origin of the Helper, where the Helper comes from.

Second, he tells them the origin of the Helper by stating he is the ‘Spirit of truth who comes from the Father.’ The Greek term translated as ‘comes from’ is ἐκπορεύεται or ekporeúetai, which is traditionally translated into English as ‘proceeds from.’ If I state that I proceeded from a room, you know that I as a creature had to enter that room from elsewhere and then leave it. On the other hand, nowhere in the Bible does it state that the Spirit came from elsewhere, entered the Father, and then proceeded from the Father. The implication is that the Spirit originated from the Father by procession. It is like saying the Spirit was ‘spirated’ or breathed out by God. If God the Father is not a composite being, in other words, not a creature, then his Spirit, his own Breath as it were, must be exactly what he is—God, the divine. This is the implication. Altogether, the obvious personhood of the Spirit and the implication of his divine essence is evidence that supports the Trinity.
someone being sent would make that one being sent a subordinate not a equal
 

walt

Jesus is King & Mighty God Isa.9:6-7; Lk.1:32-33
Sorry Jimb, I guess my comments weren't that good to you, or maybe I don't understand the scripture quite the same as you do, either way I will try to do better for the next conversation. I figure someday I'll get better at these debates somehow. :twohearts:
 

mangalavara

नमस्कार
Premium Member
someone being sent would make that one being sent a subordinate not a equal

Jesus sending the Spirit does not necessarily imply anything about the divine essence, who shares it, who does not share it. Jesus sending the Spirit is a matter of who, that is, what person, has the primacy in the Trinity. Considering that the Father begat the Son and breathed out the Spirit, the Father has the primacy among them. Also, seeing that the Son is begotten of the Father and that the Spirit proceeds from the Father, the Son and the Spirit obviously do not differ from the Father in their essence. Considering that the Spirit does not have the primacy, he can be sent to human beings by the Son.
 

JerryMyers

Active Member
If you bother to read the Bible, you will see how ludicrous your post is.

John 15:26, "When the Advocate [the Holy Spirit ("persongod" in your words)] comes, whom I will send you from the Father—the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father—he will testify about me."

Right there, in one verse, is the proof of the Trinity.
Proof of the Trinity???!! Are you on drugs???

Why did Jesus say “, whom I will send you from the Father ….” ??

That’s because earlier in John 14:16, Jesus has made it clear “ And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Advocate/Helper..”.

The phrase “…from the Father…” in John 15:26 also tells us it was not Jesus who was sending another Advocate, but it was God Almighty who was sending this Advocate.
It’s like if I say “I am sending this cake from my mother” to my neighbor, does that make my mother and I the one and same person?? According to your understanding, yes! LOL!!
 

cataway

Well-Known Member
Jesus sending the Spirit does not necessarily imply anything about the divine essence, who shares it, who does not share it. Jesus sending the Spirit is a matter of who, that is, what person, has the primacy in the Trinity. Considering that the Father begat the Son and breathed out the Spirit, the Father has the primacy among them. Also, seeing that the Son is begotten of the Father and that the Spirit proceeds from the Father, the Son and the Spirit obviously do not differ from the Father in their essence. Considering that the Spirit does not have the primacy, he can be sent to human beings by the Son.
divine essence , primacy , Spirit does not have the primacy" as I said the one being sent would be subordinate
 

Hockeycowboy

Witness for Jehovah
Premium Member
Jesus sending the Spirit does not necessarily imply anything about the divine essence, who shares it, who does not share it. Jesus sending the Spirit is a matter of who, that is, what person, has the primacy in the Trinity. Considering that the Father begat the Son and breathed out the Spirit, the Father has the primacy among them. Also, seeing that the Son is begotten of the Father and that the Spirit proceeds from the Father, the Son and the Spirit obviously do not differ from the Father in their essence. Considering that the Spirit does not have the primacy, he can be sent to human beings by the Son.
The Trinity Doctrine says nothing about primacy.

In fact, it states that all three are ‘co-equal, co-powerful, and co-eternal.’

Your views would be considered heresy.

Are you aware that “essence” is a Greek philosophical term, and not found in the Bible?…

Highly respected scholar and Catholic priest John L. McKenzie, S.J., in his “Dictionary of the Bible”, says: “The trinity of persons within the unity of nature is defined in terms of ‘person’ and ‘nature’ which are Gk (Greek) philosophical terms; actually the terms do not appear in the Bible. The trinitarian definitions arose as the result of long controversies in which these terms and others such as ‘essence’ and ‘substance’ were erroneously applied to God by some theologians.”—(Italics and bold type are mine.) (New York, 1965), p. 899.

This guy was himself a Catholic priest (a trinitarian), but he was honest enough to note the ‘errors’
that were applied to some texts.
 

mangalavara

नमस्कार
Premium Member
The Trinity Doctrine says nothing about primacy.

The Trinity is understood a little differently in Eastern (Greek) and Western (Latin) theology. The Eastern one understands the Father as having the primacy with respect to relations among the Son and the Spirit. It is Eastern theology that I am arguing from, not the Western one.

In fact, it states that all three are ‘co-equal, co-powerful, and co-eternal.’

The Western (Latin) understanding of the Trinity includes the teaching that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are co-equal, implying that one of them does not have the primacy with respect to their relations. That is not the understanding of the teaching of the Trinity that I have explained—the Eastern one—in my previous posts in this thread.

Your views would be considered heresy.

I think most students of Western (Latin) Christian theology would not call Eastern (Greek) Christian theology ‘heresy’ these days.

Are you aware that “essence” is a Greek philosophical term, and not found in the Bible?…

I have no idea if ousía (essence) is in the New Testament or not. Even if the term is not found in the New Testament, it (and some others) is a helpful term. It is helpful in Christian theology or attempting to understand the nature of God based on a variety of verses in the New Testament.

Something else not found in the Bible is a complete list of canonical scriptures. If the list is not in Bible, why do you use the list anyway? I don’t need an answer to that question, by the way.


That guy is irrelevant to a debate between you and me. If you want to really argue against anything that I have written in previous posts in this thread, you should address what I have written and explain how it is wrong. I have been very, very careful with all of my words in this thread, by the way.
 

Betho_br

Active Member
When Jesus said he and the Father are one were they both males? I mean God said let us make man in our image. That was two. One male one female.
We must not confuse the doctrine of unity with the dogma of the trinity.

1) "I and the Father are one" proves the doctrine of unity, a doctrine present in Judaism, Christianity and Islam.

2) The father and I are one, it means everything from "union of purpose" to "one metaphysical essence", it depends on who will interpret it.

3) Jesus's statement "I am in the Father" conveys a profound theological meaning. In the context of Hebrew and Greek prepositions used in biblical texts, which often denote geographical relationships like "a mountain to the city," Jesus's words suggest a spiritual and intimate connection rather than a physical location. He is expressing that he shares a deep unity and influence with the Father, highlighting their inseparable relationship or missiological...
 
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jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
That's fine as far as your opinion of me. Nevertheless, God the One you call a trinity said, Let us make man in our image. First then God made Adam and after that He made Eve.First the man and then after that, the woman.
And..? What are you trying to say? "... our image" implies more than one.
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
using that kind of logic jimb uses would make '',me ,myself ,and I '' a trinity . I checked with myself ,an found out its not the way it works
:sweatsmile: If you're going to write something, try to make it logical, or at least worth reading.
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Jimb quoted John 15.26:

“When the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, namely, the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, He will testify about Me (NASB).

I agree with @jimb that this verse is evidence for the Trinity, though I would say it is just some of the evidence for the Trinity. In the following, I will explain how John 15.26 is some evidence for the Trinity.

First, Jesus mentions the Helper/Advocate and that this Helper would testify of Jesus. The title (Helper) and the action (to testify) together imply that Jesus is speaking of a person. Now, anybody can call himself an advocate and pretend to testify about something, so Jesus tells them the origin of the Helper, where the Helper comes from.

Second, he tells them the origin of the Helper by stating he is the ‘Spirit of truth who comes from the Father.’ The Greek term translated as ‘comes from’ is ἐκπορεύεται or ekporeúetai, which is traditionally translated into English as ‘proceeds from.’ If I state that I proceeded from a room, you know that I as a creature had to enter that room from elsewhere and then leave it. On the other hand, nowhere in the Bible does it state that the Spirit came from elsewhere, entered the Father, and then proceeded from the Father. The implication is that the Spirit originated from the Father by procession. It is like saying the Spirit was ‘spirated’ or breathed out by God. If God the Father is not a composite being, in other words, not a creature, then his Spirit, his own Breath as it were, must be exactly what he is—God, the divine. This is the implication. Altogether, the obvious personhood of the Spirit and the implication of his divine essence is evidence that supports the Trinity.
Great post! Thanks for writing this, although I don't think it will penetrate closed minds.
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
someone being sent would make that one being sent a subordinate not a equal
:sweatsmile: That makes zero sense. I will make it easier for you to understand: if I send my wife to the neighbor's, does that mean she is not my equal?
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Sorry Jimb, I guess my comments weren't that good to you, or maybe I don't understand the scripture quite the same as you do, either way I will try to do better for the next conversation. I figure someday I'll get better at these debates somehow. :twohearts:
There is no "trying to do better" Walt. I appreciate your posts -- always have -- even if we disagree about something.

I wish I could say that about others on this forum! Some of them make no sense at all.
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Jesus sending the Spirit does not necessarily imply anything about the divine essence, who shares it, who does not share it. Jesus sending the Spirit is a matter of who, that is, what person, has the primacy in the Trinity. Considering that the Father begat the Son and breathed out the Spirit, the Father has the primacy among them. Also, seeing that the Son is begotten of the Father and that the Spirit proceeds from the Father, the Son and the Spirit obviously do not differ from the Father in their essence. Considering that the Spirit does not have the primacy, he can be sent to human beings by the Son.
Great post (as usual)! Thanks for your clear expressions of the truth!
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Proof of the Trinity???!! Are you on drugs???

Why did Jesus say “, whom I will send you from the Father ….” ??

That’s because earlier in John 14:16, Jesus has made it clear “ And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Advocate/Helper..”.

The phrase “…from the Father…” in John 15:26 also tells us it was not Jesus who was sending another Advocate, but it was God Almighty who was sending this Advocate.
It’s like if I say “I am sending this cake from my mother” to my neighbor, does that make my mother and I the one and same person?? According to your understanding, yes! LOL!!
If you can't write anything useful or at least of interest, why write at all?

And your ad hominem insult says a lot about who you are.
 
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